The concept of the Logos in Christianity is fundamentally different from Philo’s philosophical Logos. John’s Gospel identifies the Logos as fully divine and incarnate in Jesus Christ... not abstract intermediary...
Many would disagree with that.
When the LXX used 'logos' as the translation of Hebrew 'dubar' the meaning of the OT was changed in the minds of anyone schooled in Greek philosophy. The linking of the Jewish notion of Word, Glory, Name and the Greek concept of Logos implies that the Logos was on earth in patriarchal times leading the Israelites through the wilderness and dwelling in the tabernacle. In the same manner Philo conceived of the Word, Glory, Name and angel in the OT stories, that is how he conceived the Logos. Now while Philo interpreted aspects of the scriptures allegorically as subtext, he at the same time understood aspects of it literally. It would be a mistake to believe he thought of the pillar of fire or cloud in the most holy as merely abstractions. As was said before Philo also entertained the idea that the Logos had actually materialized to walk on earth.
It seems more than coincidental that John 1:14 use of the (doxa) Glory is the same as was used in LXX for the cloud in the Tabernacle/temple. The author was making explicit he, like Philo, equated Christ with the OT Glory of God.
I'll also repeat that the so-called Christ Myth model of Christian origins proposes an incarnation of the Logos in a mystic sense, something that was believed to have happened but known only through revelation/vision and OT typology. The incarnation in the Ascension of Isaiah (and it's likely pre-Christain source) belongs to that type of Christology. The book of Hebrews also would fit that. Whether you find that model persuasive or not, it's impossible to not see a continuity/influence between Philonic conceptions of Logos and early Christian.