Posts by Abraham1

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Not vague. Translators thought ocean water will always remain stable, nothing is able to destabilize it.

More careful Translations such as NIV put it: “roaring and tossing of the sea.” (https://biblehub.com/luke/21-25.htm) Word for “tossing” is σάλου (salou), from saino; i.e., billow,” (swell outwards). Thus underlying thought is like balloon swelling, or water flowing outwards, as though ready to roll over, thus points to the modern terminology “sea-level rise.” Biblos Interlinear Translation (INT:) translates it as “of [the] sea and rolling surge.” “Rolling Sea.” (A Greek Lexicon to the New Testament, Edward ROBINSON (D.D., page 416) (A Greek Lexicon to the New Testament on the basis of Dr. Robinson ... by C. Robson).

Jesus’ original use of the wording “tossing of the sea” is another way of saying “sea-level would rise” as a result of pollution of air. (Revelation 11:18)

The same word is used in the sense of being "shaken, unsettled" as happens during persecution. (https://biblehub.com/1_thessalonians/3-3.htm)

That means sea-level rise was actually predicted, and was also being fulfilled in a monstrous way in our time. But "faithful and discreet slave" failed to discern it and thus to make use of it for their credit.

If JWs had done this well in advance, they would have been even more famous than that of 1914 teaching.

Now, there is no charm.

21

How did Revelation make it in the bible?? It's a drug fuelled trip!

by Witness 007 in

catholic church killed off alot of christian books from the "offical" bible collection.

so why let thru the weird book of revelation?

have you read the watchtowers explanation it's a joke rutherford's conventions play a huge part..

Abraham1

There are unscriptural things in the Bible such as Numbers 31:17, 18.

There are also very good things in the Bible such as real truth about God (Mathew 5:43-48), and prophecies about our time even JWs missed. https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/5753573437603840/missed-opportunity-jehovahs-witnesses

21

How did Revelation make it in the bible?? It's a drug fuelled trip!

by Witness 007 in

catholic church killed off alot of christian books from the "offical" bible collection.

so why let thru the weird book of revelation?

have you read the watchtowers explanation it's a joke rutherford's conventions play a huge part..

Abraham1

If not Guardian, go for Aljazira. It had one interview which brought out even more serious details than Guardian, or

https://theconversation.com/what-big-oil-knew-about-climate-change-in-its-own-words-170642

21

How did Revelation make it in the bible?? It's a drug fuelled trip!

by Witness 007 in

catholic church killed off alot of christian books from the "offical" bible collection.

so why let thru the weird book of revelation?

have you read the watchtowers explanation it's a joke rutherford's conventions play a huge part..

Abraham1

Because Revelation 11:18 speaks of a time when people "ruin" the fine-tuning of earth. This can happen only after industrial revolution. Hence, Book of Revelation is not about 1st century, but about 20 and 21sr century. The Greek word for "ruin" is διαφθεῖραι (diaphtheirai)

Verb - Aorist Infinitive Active
Strong's 1311: "To destroy, waste; hence met: I corrupt. From diaballo and phtheiro; to rot thoroughly, i.e. to ruin." Usefulness of environment is being wasted.

Ruination was deliberately brought. https://www.theguardian.com/environment/2021/mar/18/oil-industry-fossil-fuels-air-pollution-documents

Even after COP26, oil giants are seeking more investment in fossil energy. https://wap.business-standard.com/article/international/after-cop26-uae-energy-summit-stresses-on-investment-in-fossil-fuel-121111501801_1.html

21

How did Revelation make it in the bible?? It's a drug fuelled trip!

by Witness 007 in

catholic church killed off alot of christian books from the "offical" bible collection.

so why let thru the weird book of revelation?

have you read the watchtowers explanation it's a joke rutherford's conventions play a huge part..

Abraham1

Book of Revelation may have many human inputs, yet it has some real prophetic elements such as 11:18 which speaks of a time earth will undergo Climate Emergency, and now we are experiencing it.(https://www.wired.co.uk/article/climate-change-facts-2019)

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Hi Smiddy3,

Bible does ask us to choose between verses and accounts 1-thessalonians/5/19-23 which you can describe as “cherry picking.” I am doing only what Bible itself asks us to do in the above quoted Scripture.

There is one more reason for me to do this:

Jesus praised God, saying “At that time Jesus said, “I praise You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that You have hidden these things from the wise and intelligent, and have revealed them to infants.” (Mathew 11:25)

Let us contrast what scholars and children do.

Scholars read John 20:17 where “Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God,’” and they teach “Jesus is our God. Again, they read 1 Corinthians 9:5 which says: “Do we not have the right to take along a believing wife,1 as do the other apostles and qthe brothers of the Lord and rCephas?” Thus Jesus’ contemporaries knew that all of Jesus’ apostles were married ones, yet scholars make celibacy mandatory for their ministers.

Regarding children, Jesus “said to them, “Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these. Truly I tell you, anyone who will not receive the kingdom of God like a little child will never enter it.” (Mark 10:14, 15) Children are known for accepting what mother reveals about father and accepting what their father says.

Jesus who was taught by God (John 8:28) testifies about God: “Love your enemies, do good to them, and lend to them without expecting to get anything back. Then your reward will be great, and you will be children of the Most High, because he is kind to the ungrateful and wicked. Be merciful, just as your Father is merciful. “ (Luke 6:35, 36) According to Jesus, God has only showed “kindness to the wicked” and asked his listeners “be kind to the wicked and thus be like God.” This statement is from Jesus about whom God said “Listen to him.” (Mathew 17:5) So, Jesus testifies that God has not killed, nor authorized anyone to kill enemies in the past. But human writers say “God ordered killing of innocent people” as reported in Numbers 31:17, 18. Thus when Jesus says one thing about God, and Bible writers say just opposite, I accept what Jesus said about God.

When Jesus speaks of future events (such as pollution and sea-level rise—Revelation 11:18; Luke 21:25) it comes true. (https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/5753573437603840/missed-opportunity-jehovahs-witnesses.) If so how much more should I believe him when he speaks about past?

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

You are right.

This has happened with Scripture writing itself. Though Bible has over 30,000 verses, only a few verses are really inspired of God such as Proverbs, Ecclesiastes and prophetic verses such as Luke 21:25; Revelation 11:18 which find their fulfillment in our time. https://www.jehovahs-witness.com/topic/5753573437603840/missed-opportunity-jehovahs-witnesses.

genesis/36/31 makes reference to “Kings in Israel” which means Bible writing started either during or after Israel’s monarchy. That means writers had to invent many things to reach beginning of history among which some will be true and some will not. Hence Jesus declared there are many things unscriptural in the Scriptures. For example, matthew/5/43-48 makes all wars in the OT as being not authorized by God. His half-brother James says all accounts which say God “tested” his servants are not inspired of God. (James 1:13) Isaiah 66:3, 4 says all types of animal sacrifices are of human origin. That means we have more “weeds” than seeds. (Mathew 13:24-30) Hence the exhortation in 1-thessalonians/5/19-23.

If this is the case with Scripture writing, one can imagine the nature of Translation.

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Thank you.

I have posted here whatever my Witness family members find it difficult to answer.

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Bible writers are very clear about this. They use the mild word kolasis in the sense of corrective punishment by father to child, as in 1 John 4:17, 18.

But Jesus did not use the harsh word timoria in Mathew 25:46. (Compare Acts 22:5; 26:11) Since punishment is from God who is supremely good (Mark 10:18) it must be with some good purpose behind, to serve as remedial discipline. And it will also be proportionate to ones action. (Mark 4:24; Matthew 5:43-48)

53

New World Translation is not much different other translations

by Abraham1 in

key scripture 2 timothy 3:16 should have been translated as “every scripture inspired of god is also profitable for teaching” like many other serious translations (such as american standard version ; douay-rheims bible etc) as it is what the greek text says.. this is in harmony with the contents of bible and also with the writer paul himself who knew after his departure ‘even from his own number men will arise and distort the truth.’ (acts 20:29-30) for example, verses such as romans 7:19 is such distortion.

such verses cannot originate from real paul who was “holy, righteous and blameless.” (1 thessalonians 2:10) hence paul had the freeness of speech to tell others to be “blameless” like him (1 thessalonians 5:19-23; ephesians 5:24) there are many things in the scriptures which are not inspired such as words of satan, words of job’s wife and his false friends, words of judas, lot’s daughters …etc.

apostle peter never disowned jesus because if he had done so, his contemporaries would have interrupted him when he rebuked jews, saying: “you disowned the holy and righteous one and asked that a murderer be released to you.“ (acts 3:14) his listeners would have asked him “what right do you have to reprove us for ‘disowning jesus” when you yourself have done it first?” all such verses or accounts were later adoptions.

Abraham1

Another glaring mistake is Mathew 25:46 which all Translations render: ““Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.” (https://biblehub.com/matthew/25-46.htm)

Only NW Translation puts their own thought into it and distorts the whole meaning: “These will depart into everlasting cutting-off.” (https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/study-bible/books/matthew/25/)

The Greek word used is kolasis. “The word was originally a gardening word, and its original meaning was pruning trees. In Greek there are two words for punishment, timoria and kolasis, and there is a quite definite distinction between them. Aristotle defines the difference; kolasis is for the sake of the one who suffers it; timoria is for the sake of the one who inflicts it. Plato says that no one punishes (kolazei) simply because he has done wrong - that would be to take unreasonable vengeance (timoreitai). We punish (kolazei) a wrong-doer in order that he may not do wrong again (Protagoras 323 E). Clement of Alexandria (Stromateis 4.24; 7.16) defines kolasis as pure discipline, and timoria as the return of evil for evil. Aulus Gellius says that kolasis is given that a man may be corrected; timoria is given that dignity and authority may be vindicated (The Attic Nights7.14). The difference is quite clear in Greek and it is always observed. Timoria is retributive punishment. Kolasis is always given to amend and to cure. (From The Apostles’ Creed by William Barclay.) (https://forum.)

Jesus is the one who used the word kolasis in Mathew 25:46. He never meant eternal cutting off because he had already made it clear what would happen to the unrighteous: “When Jesus heard this, he was amazed and said to those following him, “Truly I tell you, I have not found anyone in Israel with such great faith. I say to you that many will come from the east and the west, and will take their places at the feast with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven. But the subjects of the kingdom will be thrown outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” (Mathew 8:10-13) Also compare Mathew 19:28-30 which speaks of two contrasting groups of people---one group receives "100 times as much" whereas others receive something less about which they "will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” To do this means they exist, not were cut off.