Bobcat, Phizzy,
Probably some people are tired of hearing me relate my take on this. It started with the days about 4 years ago when my instructors armed with "What the Bible Really Teaches" kept insisting that Babylon was destroyed because Isaiah said so. And that it was destroyed forever as a consequence of messing around with things in Jerusalem, whether as an instrument of the Lord's ( Jehovah's) punishment of Israel or not.
This was a position of the WTBRT as well.
Well, at that point, I hadn't given the matter much thought, but my intuition or casual reading indicated to me that Babylon had remained as a municipality for centuries and my immediate inquiries seemed to confirm. Moreover, it seemed like the time that Babylon really got clobbered just so happened to be in Isaiah's time - by Sennacherib.
But then I happened to notice the verse in question.
And that NWT text which I came across subsequently had a "Table of the Books of the Bible", pp. 1546-1547. Beside many other questionable dates and authorships for the OT, it stated that Peter I and II were written by Peter between 62-64 AD in Babylon.
Babylon the city that was destroyed forever centuries earlier in another "document" I was supposed to take on faith.
Well, I suppose if I were really credulous, I could believe that Peter consigned himself to a non-existent city to take advantage of it as a communications center with other Christian congregations in Asia minor. Or I could presume that he was referring to another place which was likened to Babylon...
But then there had to be a reason to make any comparisons to Babylon for a place like Rome, would there not?
The most obvious would be destructions of Temple I and Temple II.
But that does not match up very well with writing in the early 60s of the first century AD. Nor does the text of the II Peter. For it concludes speaking of Pau's writing as a body of work, a body which was largely written at the same time or even later than when we are to presume that Peter is living in isolation in Babylon. "In all his letters there are some passages which are hard to understand... and these are the passages which[some] people distort in the same way as they distort the rest of scripture". What's more, its advice given to elders is that of running a very institutionalized organization. As many have asked, are these concerns of 64 AD or decades later?
Reading the two books or epistles, it seems like another window on beliefs or perspectives of those times -but how they are all related seems so mysterious and complicated. Still, I suspect that some arguments for what has become canonical are not so much based on genuine Greek letter authorship of a supposedly aramaic speaking fisherman, but the nature of the beliefs and understandings that are passed on. In part I am reminded of Hebrews when Peter speaks of angels...
But in the second epistle, in contrast to JW theology, I am struck by this passage:
(II Peter 2:4) " When angels sinned, God did not spare them, he sent them down into the underworld and consigned them to the dark abyss to be held there until the Judgment. "
That's one translation anyway. But consider the NWT version. Look how it's finessed in that one so that they have a day pass - like fall to Earth '14 if that is the new requirement.