That "abstain from....blood' meant "thou shalt not kill" is imaginable at Acts15 and has been proposed before but I doubt it.
Terry, I was thinking along the same lines as you. My reasoning was in part because it would coincide better with the covenant made with Noah in Genesis chapter 9. But, IMO, it would also better fit the immediate and larger context of Acts.
My reasoning is as follows:
(1) In the book of Acts, every mention of "blood," besides in regard to this directive, has reference to blood guilt or in some way connected to the shedding of blood, not the eating/consuming of it.
These are the occurrances of "blood" in Acts: 1:19; 2:19; 2:20; 5:28;15:20, 29; 18:6; 20:26, 28; 21:25; 22:20
They break down to:
15:20, 29; 21:25 - The letter/directive from Jerusalem
1:19 - Judas' field of blood (from Judas' bloody death)
2:19, 20 - figurative, but drawing on the color of blood
5:28; 18:6; 20:26; - blood guilt
20:28 - Jesus' shed blood, thus related to murder
22:20 - Stephan's shed blood, thus related to murder
(2) In the directive itself (in Acts 15), it mentions "abstain from ... things strangled," which is an obvious reference to eating/consuming blood. If "abstain ... from blood" also refers to consuming, then, you have an overlap of commands. This, to me, doesn't make sense given the fact that the writers were trying to minimize the number of stipulations for Gentiles. If "from blood" meant consumption, then, "from things strangled" would become an unnecessary repitition. (or visa versa)
It would be good to keep in mind that the letter as reported in Acts may very well be just a brief synopsis of a more detailed actual letter. This might account for the missing verbs in "abstain from ... [stuff]".
Also, the command, as reported by the writer of Acts, was "abstain from ... carefully keep yourselves from ... " Gentile converts would already be aware of the need to "keep themselves from" immorality, idolatry, murder and so forth. These were basic teachings of Christianity. The purpose of the letter was more likely to make the Gentiles aware of areas that they would consider "grey areas", but were outright forbidden for Jews. One example that comes to mind in regard to murder would be the treatment of slaves. The Jewish Law had a comparatively humane way of treating slaves, whereas Roman laws were comparatively brutal. A gentile growing up under Roman law might not be as sensitive towards slaves as his Jewish counterpart. Same way for immorality. For a Jew, everything outside of marriage was immoral. But gentile might see a more blurred picture of what was classified as immoral. (1 Cor 5:1 is a good example of this difference in viewpoint.)
Take Care