MrMustard,
Then there's this again:
The plain sense of Jeremiah 25:29 says the calamity begins (starts) firstwith Jehovah's city (namely Jerusalem) and Judah and proceeds to gentile nations.
"See, I am beginning to bring disaster..." is not the same as saying Babylon will "start with" Jerusalem.
Seventy years of servitude, vassalage, to Babylon of many nations. One of which was Judah, but the rule of Babylon is the 70 years.
Hence 29:10 - "When seventy years have been completed for Babylon..."
The emphasis of the 70 years is always Babylon. Not just Nebuchadnezzar, Babylon. It's 70 years of Babylonian rule. And 25:12 makes it really clear because when the 70 years is up, Babylon falls ( in that order ).
Though Assyria was conquered by Nebuchadnezzar II of Babylon before the year 606 BCE, Nebuchadnezzar II was not yet king at that time. Nebuchadnezzar II conquered Assyria while Nebuchadnezzar's father was king of Babylon.
So? I don't see where the 70 years is attributed specifically to Neb. It's "for Babylon".
Thank you very much indeed! 😊
All these years I have been reading “70 years for Babylon” and thinking to myself, ‘that verse just doesn’t sound grammatically correct,- if the writer means to imply “at, or in, Babylon” (?!), when referring to the desolation of Jerusalem.
The penny has dropped at last!
I struggled for a long time over 607 or 587, and at the end came to the conclusion that 70 years could only apply to the conquest, vassalage of Jerusalem and Judea.