Alan F
Your choice of Josephus for establishing the meaning of parousia in the 1st century is at variance with the meagre discussion of his material in Kittel's TDNT, Vol.5, pp.864-5. Clearly, This term in Josephus can be translated in various ways, all that you have done is selected those texts that show arrival rather than presence. You do not demonstrate completely how this term is used and so arbitrary selection is irrelevant. What figures most importantly for Christians is how this word should be rendered in English for the 24 times it occurs in the NT. Perhaps, as you make bold and fanciful claims about this term, you could indicate how parousia dhould be translated in each of those occurrences.
The Society's WT article on this subject contains no lies as you allege but simply presents the facts of lexicography that parousia means presence with its connotations of arrival and coming unless of course you intend to produce your own lexicon or Bible transaltion.
scholar
BA BA Hons(cand.) MA Studies in Religion