No problem JoenB57 , and for the record l do see the all in Col 1:20 as all . Out of interest l will conduct a straw poll in my church on that one . I cannot remember it being discussed in Bible study .
TD l have looked into Luke11:42 and 21:29 and yes my NIV does ad "other " in there , some translations don't . l can't see why for the life of me but it doesn't change the meaning of the teaching . Having looked at the rest of the examples and checking some commentaries l don't think that the "all " in them needs to be qualified and again the gist of the passages are not compromised anyway .
In the case of John 1:3 the addition of " other " obviously does alter the meaning . The whole verse in the literal translation reads " All things through him came into being , and without him came into being not even one thing that has come into being " Doesn't the final part of the verse indicate that the " all " is meant to be all ? It seems so to me .
When you add in other verses to get this into context , such as Col 1:15 " The Son is the image of the invisible God , the firstborn of all creation . Col 1 : 19 "For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him " to me this backs up the belief that Jesus was not a created being , like MIchael the Archangel as the WT teaches .
l realise that not everyone will see it like this , but l do think that this is a conversation worth having with JWs .
Jan