" Modern Greek lexicons, such as BDAG and the Concise Greek-English Lexicon, universally define antilytron as “ransom”—with no implication of exact equivalency." - kind of does... The OT implies as such... that Law didn't end until Jesus died.
*** w00 10/15 p. 30 Questions From Readers ***
The obligation to keep the Mosaic Law ended when the Messiah died.
see: Romans 10:4Rom. 3:21-26
(1 Corinthians 15:45)
The first man Adam became a living person. The last Adam became a life-giving spirit.”
(Hebrews 4:15)
“. . .but we have one who has been tested in all respects as we have, but without sin. . .”
hence in 1 Timothy 2:6 "The man" and "men" are 2 distinct groups as Jesus was the only man at that time (living) "without sin"
1 Corinthians 15:20-22 - equivalence implication no #1
I'm not going to do a "verse battle" with you AQ because that's what you want - if people don't interact with you, you stop... when people interreact you AI text generate and lie.
Who was the Ransom paid to AQ according to scripture?
A non JW website answers this question: https://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-pay-ransom.htmlclearly it was paid to God... because God decided that it is how it must be. (God "lacking" something has nothing to do with it)
"a soul for a soul"
*** ad p. 1373 Ransom ***
Parkhurst’s A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament (p. 47) says it means: “a ransom, price of redemption, or rather a correspondent ransom. ‘It properly signifies a price by which captives are redeemed from the enemy; and that kind of exchange in which the life of one is redeemed by the life of another.’ So Aristotle uses the verb antilytroo for redeeming life by life.”
Rolf Furoli on this subject: https://mybelovedreligion.no/2024/07/02/the-devaluation-and-restriction-of-the-ransom-sacrifice-i-jesus-died-for-all-adams-descendants/(I agree with Rolf in almost everything he says... Rolf is a Christian and acts likes it, AQ does not.)