Scholar,
Would a genuine scholar make the following criticisms without seeing the rafters in his own eyes?
The expression 'Jonsson hypothesis' is most appropriate because Jonsson has not proved his case but simply presented and interpreted the secular and biblical evidence supporting his claims . . .
Why not then speak of the "Watchtower hypothesis"? The WT Society has merely presented and interpreted its own claims with very little if any credible evidence. And why give Jonsson the credit for a so-called "hypothesis" that appeared in print long before he showed that it is a far better explanation than the one given by the WT Society?
scholars are divided as to whether the Fall of Jerusalem applies to 586 or 587 and both sides have their own reasons for supporting their particular position.
Isn't this an admission that Jonsson's explanation is scholarly? More important than any supposed disagreement between 586 and 587 is the almost unanimous rejection of 607. How prudent is it to reject an explanation acceptable to the majority of scholars in favour of an explanation that most of them have rejected? It seems to me that the only excuse the WT Society has for such a poor choice is "their own [prideful and stubborn] reasons for supporting their particular position."
Unfortunately, the posters on this board are deceived by Jonsson in that they believe that he has all the answers and that his critique of WT chronology is Absolute Truth.
Is it truly scholarly to accuse others of being deceived when the weight of evidence is in their favour? Is it honest? As for claims of having "all the answers" and possessing "Absolute Truth," these were made by the WT Society long before Jonsson was even born!
Jonsson has not had his work peer reviewed by scholars and simply represents a biased attempt to disprove WT chronology therefore his work does not represent scholarship at its best.
Isn't it contradictory to say in one breath that Jonsson's view is supported by some scholars and then in another breath to say that he "has not had his work peer reviewed by scholars"? Is it fair to say he's biased when he shows plainly what scholars have advocated and what they've rejected? Is it "scholarship at its best" to reject Jonsson in favour of the WT Society when the majority of scholars reject the explanation given by the WT Society and have not done so with regard to Jonsson's explanation?
Why don't you compare Furuli's chronology and you will see that the secular evidence is not infallible and is open to serious criticism.
Where is the honesty and sincerity in saying that the evidence presented by some scholars is "not infallible" when that fact is especially true of one's own so-called "evidence"? Which is more "open to serious criticism, the claims of the majority or claims that the majority have shown to be outdated and as unsupported by sound reasoning and evidence?
Furuli presents his research in a unbiased way which contrasts markedly with Jonsson's handling of the evidence.
Furuli's "research" conflicts with the results of more recent evidence that fully supports Jonsson's handling of the evidence. Isn't it therefore more than a bit absurd to make the above accusation?
fjtoth