wt 5/1/03 Questions From Readers:
However, on an earlier occasion when crowds of suffering people were brought to Jesus for healing, these included some were "demon-possessed and epileptic" (italics theirs) (Mathew 4:24) Evidently, it was recognized that some epileptics were not demon possessed.
Doesn't it seem odd that the wt can claim that Matthew understood that not all epileptics were demon possessed by the one word and? How do they know that he wasn't just listing the problems the boy had? Basically, their is no way to prove if Matthew was saying that epilepsy was always caused by demons or not. But I get it! If you look closer you will find something neat!
Evidently, it was recognized that some epileptics were not demon possessed.
With evidently you can say something and not really need to give proof of what you just said. The statement becomes its known reason.
zucker