"It is noteworthy that when writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures, they usually did so from the Septuagint"
Is this a factual statement? or is this one of the "obviously, or evidently's"
All this WT article states is that the Septuagint is the faulty text not the Hebrew scriptures. It is the reliance on the Septuagint that is the fault. My understanding was not that the Septuagint was written for its upstanding translation of the Hebrew scriptures, but rather for the Greek readers to be able to read the Hebrew scriptures.