i have a question

by brandon_the many 90 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • JosephMalik
    JosephMalik

    It has been known for a long time that the word God and its use is not limited to the Supreme Being. When it is used of others then it cannot be said that we have two God’s (as if both are the Supreme Being) nor can it be said that some other scripture is violated or abused because this same word is used in that text. The context must be the same and in John 1:1 it is not. This simplicity of words with their multiplicity of meanings is common to many words in scripture such as heaven(s), spirit, and soul.

    This is the way Strong’s defines theos or God:

    1 ) a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities
    2) the Godhead, trinity
    2a) God the Father, the first person in the trinity
    2b) Christ, the second person of the trinity
    2c) Holy Spirit, the third person in the trinity
    3) spoken of the only and true God

    3a) refers to the things of God 3b) his counsels, interests, things due to him 4) whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way 4a) God’s representative or viceregent 4a1) of magistrates and judges

    And John 1:1-2 uses it this way: 1

    I n the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God.

    Therefore the Word was someone that was with God at the beginning of the human race and was put in charge of such human race or as John states “the Word was God” to such human race under discussion as this is what John is talking about in this introduction. This does not make two God’s or two Supreme Beings as commonly understood by many. The context or definition of this word is not the same for each use. The use of God as Supreme Being and God as Viceregent cannot be directly compared to some other text where God is used only in the sense of Supreme Being.

    Joseph

  • Crudell
    Crudell

    when the transaltion was made in the King James version there was a missed interputation.

    Remember the Bible was written in Hebrew, where they didn't use vowels.

    Now i ask you if Jesus is God then how can Jesus come up as you may know it the Lords Pray.

    why Jesus said I neither know when the father is coming only he knows.

    Jesus always put himself subjection to Jehovah.

    When the new translation says the word was a god, notice a small g no a capital. The reason for this is because Jesus is a supreme being.

    As Jesus had said there are many lords, Many gods. But there is only one Jehovah God himself.

    I hope this help you with your question.

    All what i've put down i logical sense, because how can Jehovah's word contridict itself?

  • Crudell
    Crudell

    In Regards to change the doctrine is false, all what we are taught is not by our own teaching.But from the word the bible

  • Crudell
  • Crudell
    Crudell

    Why is a delibrite miss print, when it doesn't make sense.

    It's like saying a child is both it's parents and itself.

    Not Logical

    Jesus can' be the son Son of God, God and the Holy spirit. It does not make logical sense that only to confuse a person in them not being able to get a basic understanding of the bible.

    Making it hard to be able to make a realtionship with Jehovah God himself, not even his son knows in the very hour in which he's coming,neither his other sons (Angels) Satan and he demons just like us humans.

  • Crudell
    Crudell

    what you stated you've twisted the truth to whos benieft i don't know

    If the trinty in is real as you say in is the word of the bible in false because it contridicts that very teaching.

  • Crudell
    Crudell

    The reason for that is because it's showing that it is talking about some one else other than God himself.

    The as we know it is Jesus , the Word of truth. hence the capital W but in putting as a god as small g this is beacuse he is not high and almighty as the God. In fact he is in subjection to him, just as a husband is subjection to Christ as the wife subjection to her husdand.Following the children.

  • jgnat
    jgnat
    how can Jehovah's word contridict itself

    Of course it can't. But the bible often does. This is where your logic fails. Otherwise, why would the Watchtower society CHANGE THE BIBLE?

  • Crudell
    Crudell

    Thanks Joesph I couldn't of answered any better myself.

  • Lady Liberty
    Lady Liberty

    Personally I am not sure what to think on the matter anymore. I still need to do much research. Being raised in the organization, I never believed in the Trinity. HOWEVER......I feel it is WRONG for ANYONE to change the scriptures. To slant them a direction by adding an (a) where it should be a (the) and even adding commas when at the time of writing, there were none. Stratigically placed, it totally alters the meaning of the scripture. And coupled with the word (a) it changes the meaning on two different doctorines. The trinity, and also the teaching of a paradise earth.

    L.L.

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