Butters,
The Messiah said that he was Lord of the Sabbath day in Mark 2:28. He said the Sabbath was made for MAN, (not Israel)
"Not Israel" is your own paratext. You could just as well say "man, not animals" or "man, not woman" and that would be equally foreign to the context, hence irrelevant. The point of this passage is "sabbath for man, not man for sabbath" (just as in the rabbinical Midrash Mekhilta). This doesn't question the sabbath as a specifically Jewish rule nor promote its extension to Gentiles -- the context btw is about breaking the sabbath within the Jewish sphere. That most Gentile Christians did not consider themselves bound by the Jewish sabbath is apparent from Colossians 2:16f (and implicitly Romans 14).
It seems that the later Church fathers made it up, all part of their Babylonian Trinity and other false dogma.
Lol. You mentioned "ex-Watchtower stuff lingering around" didn't you?
The law was transferred (Hebrews 7:12) to Messiah along with the priesthood.
"To (the) Messiah" is again your own paratext, and the meaning "transferred" highly dubious. In the perspective of Hebrews the law was changed or removed (metatithemi, metathesis, cf. 12:27), period.
The epistle of Barnabas is not scripture. That writing was assembled in the latter part of the 7th century of our era.
You must be mixing up with the Acts of Barnabas (5th century) or the Gospel of Barnabas (14th century). The epistle of Barnabas is a late 1st- or early 2nd-century text, which was considered "scripture" by a large segment of the early Christian church -- it is even found along the (rest of the) "New Testament" in the Codex Sinaiticus. See http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/barnabas.html
The "Lord's Day" is a future reference to things about to occur according to revelation.
The Greek text doesn't use the noun kurios (the "Day of the Lord" in the full apocalyptical sense would be hemera (tou) kuriou) but the technical adjective kuriakos -- "on Lordday" would be an approximate attempt to render the nuance. In the NT this adjective occurs only here and in 1 Corinthians 11:20, in an equally "liturgical" context, for the "Lord's supper".
He also was not resurrected on a Sunday. That makes no sense at all in accord with Jonah's "3 days and 3 nights". 3 days and 3 nights from Friday was Monday at the earliest, but since Messiah was hung on a High Sabbath, (the day of preparation being before which would be Wednesday) then he rose late on the Sabbath day just as Matthew 28:1 says....
That's one possible reading of Matthew 28:1 indeed -- not of the other Gospels, including Mark which Matthew depends on. That may well have been one Jewish Christian variant of the story -- not necessarily more "original" though.
Also, while there were several Jewish Christian gospels circulating, some possibly ascribed to Matthew, the canonical Gospel of Matthew as we know it is most probably an original Greek work, depending on Mark. So "the real true Hebrew Matthew" doesn't mean a thing.
As a side note, I find amusing that you reject the epistle of Barnabas as "unscriptural," thereby accepting the main church's canon, and that you criticise the Greek Matthew which was validated by the very same canon....