i should say thanks for putting this together for us too, hawkaw. its well presented. apologies, i didnt realize the brochure was published on the WT website or i wouldve looked it up myself.
from the society's brochure, i see the point being this: early christian writers wouldve been familiar with the medical use of blood and so one cannot make the argument that when they were condemning the use of blood, they could not have had its noble use as a remedy in mind, since they were unfamiliar with it. presumably the implication is that since blood was in common use as medicine, the christian writers wouldve explicitly mentioned it if they condoned it. since they didnt, we can conclude its medical use fell under the divine prohibition.
using the original Aretaeus quote, i gather you are making 2 points about the mention of the blood treatment:
1) Aretaeus was refering to the practice as a fringe home remedy, not as a common, respected medical treatment.
2) Both Aretaeus and 1st century apologists were objecting to the method of extracting blood, rather than the practice in and of itself.
if i understand this correctly, i think i would say the 2nd point is stronger than the first. surely, these unusual home remedies, or "old wives' tales," were a much more prominent part of everyday life in roman times than today. Aretaues and others like him, were fighting an uphill battle in trying to document the relative merits of these different treatments and legitimacize them. Clearly the scientific method did not exist yet it any repsectable form. Aretaeus' own, more 'respected' treatments for epilepsy are pretty laughable too. (eg. abstain from sex since it LOOKS like an epileptic seizure - lol.) So, i dont see that the treatment's being a fringe practice greatly alters the society's argument, which is that the practice was KNOWN. for example, if you to meet the apostles and say, 'hey boys, this business with the abstain from blood and all, does this apply to blood used as medicine?' would they have said, 'blood as medicine? what the gehenna are you talking about?' no, they probably had heard of it. i see the point the society is making here to be more about the popularity of blood use, rather than its legitimacy.
the second point is better because it provides an obvious explanation for condemning the roman use of blood as medicine: it was barbaric and immoral. what aretaeus was refering to was obviously not a clinical use of blood by removing donor blood from a live individual and ingesting it. it was a greedy and desperate need to try anything to remove a terrible affliction. this is the impression i get from aretaues' quote, and especially tertullian's. we can imagine an individual rushing onto the scene of a spectator execution and hungrily squeezing what blood they could from the freshly killed victim, possibly in their final death-throes. now ANY peace-loving person would object to that, no matter what they think of the use of blood. the society's argument that the practice was well-known loses strength if the practice was ALSO inextricably connected to the love of violence.
well, those are just my thoughts. hope that makes some sense.
mox