You wrote: "the parousia did not take place then (70 CE). Why? Was the prophecy flawed?"
The word "parousia" appears (only in Matthew) in the disciples’ question. This does not make it a prophecy. During Christ’s ministry, the disciples asked several questions that displayed their ignorance or misunderstandings. To them, the parousia was exactly as they had observed it many times during their lives – the momentous visit of a dignitary.
Doug,
Sure it was a prophecy, but a prophecy with a history as discussed earlier. They all detailed His literal return here to earth just as Daniel did which did not happen in 70CE. All the accounts discussed such a parousia but by another word erchomai during this generation if you noticed? It was not necessary to use the word parousia, consistently as if it was critical to this discussion in some way. The WT makes its use almost magical, but it’s use is simple and ordinary not primary as they harp. So Matthew used it which was fine but a literal return (as foretold by the men in white robes) was prophesied in all the accounts regardless of its omission. Matt 24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming (parousia) of the Son of man be. .But they all say .. .30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming (erchomai) in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other [ressurection]. . . .34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled. 35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. 36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
Mark 13:26 And then shall they see the Son of man coming (erchomai) in the clouds with great power and glory. 27 And then shall he send his angels, and shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from the uttermost part of the earth to the uttermost part of heaven. . . 30 Verily I say unto you, that this generation shall not pass, till all these things be done. 31 Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away. 32 But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father. 33 Take ye heed, watch and pray: for ye know not when the time is.
Luke 21:27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming (erchomai) in a cloud with power and great glory. 28 And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh. . . 32 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled. 33 Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away.
Some add more detail than others and we can add them up but the literal disciples spoken to would be dead when this visible Jerusalem mentioned in this generation took place. But did this matter? No! The prophecy was written for the Faith as an entity, living or dead, makes no difference. Such a Faith such a YOU or YE KNOW existed through time as if alive awaiting this event, this generation we still look forward to and many still try to identify. How then does anyone get 70CE out of any of this and why do they insist upon it? Such a doctrine destroys the prophecy and its intended purpose. How is it that they know this day and hour so well that we still wait for? The same day and hour regarding such temples, Jerusalem, holy place that was Israel, the Kingdom’s center of worship repeated in Acts chapter 1?
-------------------
Doug said: You cited: "Ro 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth" in the context of the end of the Jewish Age.
And Doug also said: As I showed, the total context of that verse is that righteousness comes through faith alone, not by any action on my part. The verse says no more and no less, and is not related to the timing of the end of the Jewish system.
My part, your part, the Jewish Christians in Rome still keeping the Law to which Paul wrote. Where is the real context? Why did Paul have to say this to them? Well, there was a war going on in the Faith that nearly cost Paul his life and James was on the wrong side as were such Romans. It was about keeping this Law and why it no longer applied that Paul had to write such things in nearly all his letters and to appoint Elders to stop it. So law or Law, just say the word to them and it had only one meaning. Apply it now and it does not to us the way it did then. And the answer is the same, sure but so what? Yes it applies to the end of the Jewish age. Not that this is a big deal now but it most certainly was then. And it was the reason why the book of Hebrews had to be written to stop it. A major problem of the time missed by most and taken so lightly today or brushed aside as not in context. As I said before, let the readers decide where the deception is to be found and reason the matter out for themselves.
Joseph
