I'm a bit confused. I saw in cognac's thread that she used this scripture regarding something having to do with fornication. I haven't been keeping up. Can someone tell me what this is about?
1 Corinthians 7:36?
by coolhandluke 40 Replies latest jw friends
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cognac
the apostle paul was stating that if 2 people have sex before they are married it is not a sin.
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JH
36 But if anyone thinks he is behaving improperly toward his virginity, if that is past the bloom of youth, and this is the way it should take place, let him do what he wants; he does not sin. Let them marry.
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dinah
really?? How so? Let me try and find it.
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coolhandluke
call me retrofitted and programmed but I dont see it
"If anyone thinks he is acting improperly toward the virgin he is engaged to, and if she is getting along in years and he feels he ought to marry, he should do as he wants. He is not sinning. They should get married."
The bit where he says "he is not sinning" I would think would apply to "feels he ought to marry". I have no idea what the "thinks he is acting improperly" part is. But if she is still a virgin, I'd say they haven't had sex yet.
Help me out here.
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JH
the apostle paul was stating that if 2 people have sex before they are married it is not a sin.
Maybe he also meant masturbation.....
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coolhandluke
36 But if anyone thinks he is behaving improperly toward his virginity, if that is past the bloom of youth, and this is the way it should take place, let him do what he wants; he does not sin. Let them marry. Even with that I don't see it. Let him do what he wants, he does not sin. Let them marry. All of that would have to go together. If he is past the bloom of youth then he should get married. The part that i still dont get is teh behaving improperly toward his virginity. How do you do that?
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cognac
No, this didn't at all mean masturbation. The society is the only one that quotes it this way. notice what strongs says:
"But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of [her] age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry."
That word virginity, the society uses, comes from the word "parthenos" which means, and I quote from strongs(the society uses them also):
"a maiden; by implication, an unmarried daughter:--virgin."
So, in these verses, it is not speaking of his own virginity that he is violating, it is speaking of being uncomely toward his "virgin" or "unmarried daughter".
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Brother Apostate
I didn't see the thread in question, but the scripture you question (1 Cor 7:36) states:
"If anyone thinks he is acting improperly toward the virgin he is engaged to, and if she is getting along in years and he feels he ought to marry, he should do as he wants. He is not sinning. They should get married."
In biblical terms, "marriage" is the act of becoming one flesh, sexual union through intercourse. As pointed out in this scripture, this is not to be taken casually or lightly, but after getting to know one another well enough (engagement) to commit a lifetime to the union of the man and the woman. One would be practicing fornication or adultery if after that union, they had intercourse with another who was not their mate.
The confusion comes from the modern day practice of "legal" marriage, which is actually not a scriptural requirement, as a Christian's "yes" should mean yes, and "no" means no. In contrast, in scriptural terms, once a female and male have sexual intercourse, they are scripturally "married". So it is possible to be legally married without being scripturally so, and vice-versa.
BA
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changeling
I don't usually post on scriptual stuff, but I don't think that Paul was saying that fornication was not a sin. I believe he was saying that to marry was not a sin. The context of the scripture shows Paul making a case for singleness as being the best choice. So he said that even though it's best to remain single, if you felt the need to marry, go ahead, it's not a sin.
Not that it matters to me, I think it's all baloney,
changeling