by coolhandluke 40 Replies latest jw friends
In answer to the secondary question, asked by coolhandluke, the statement in the scripture in question "behaving improperly" would mean leading her on, without having sexual union and consumating the marriage. Either let her free to find another suitor, or make a go of it, quit being lukewarm be hot or cold. Put up or shut up so to speak.
BA
So, if 2 people have intercourse before they are married the apostle paul was stating that was not a sin.
that may not have been the main point of the scripture, however, it was still stated so for the society to make you feel like you sinned because of that is unscriptual. (At least in my point of view.)
So, if 2 people have intercourse before they are married the apostle paul was stating that was not a sin.
Nope, that's not what he was saying. He was saying that if someone opted to marry (the lesser choice) it was not a sin to do so.
changeling
Could it mean that fornication is not a sin IF the couple gets married? I seriously doubt it. Maybe this is a case where the scripture is being taken out of context?
Cognac: I don't think you can get around the fact that the Bible says that having sex w/o marrige is a sin.
You can, however, free yourself form guilt by coming to terms with the fact that the Bible is baloney.
changeling
So, if 2 people have intercourse before they are married the apostle paul was stating that was not a sin.
To clarify, scripturally, once the man and the woman have sexual intercourse, they have become one flesh, and so at that point they are married.
Now, if afterwards, one partner has sexual union with another, they are guilty of the sin of adultery / fornication.
The obvious exception would be in the case of divorce.
BA
hmmm, well he did say "But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin" which to me could mean a few things...
I'll state it yet again- biblical marriage is different than todays legal marriage, they are two completely different concepts. Those who do not study the Bible can spout off their opinion all they like, I have answered the question scripturally, and can back it up with the Scriptures. Becoming "one flesh" is scriptural lingo for the sexual act, which, upon occuring, IS scriptural marriage. If one then breaks that marriage bond by having sexual intercourse with another, that is a grevious sin. That is why sexual intercourse is not to be taken casuallly, time must be spent to both get to know each other, and to make a commitment to do the utmost to hold the marriage bond, and bed, sacred.
BA
To clarify, scripturally, once the man and the woman have sexual intercourse, they have become one flesh, and so at that point they are married.
8 Now I say to the unmarried persons and the widows, it is well for them that they remain even as I am. 9 But if they do not have self-control, let them marry, for it is better to marry than to be inflamed [with passion].
I think Paul meant to get married first, then have sex, not the otehr way around.
Brother Apostate -
I hit reply and was thinking about it a bit before I hit submit and had missed you last post. I agree with you 100% though. People in jesus day just went into the tent to consumate there marriage... non, of this legal stuff. what you said goes along with the scriptures 100%.
