Passages such as Isaiah 52:13 - 53:18 have traditionally been misinterpreted by Christians. The passage in question from Isaiah does not refer to the messiah at all; it refers explicitly to the people of Israel. In Isaiah 41:8 and 49:3, the prophet unequivocally identifies "my servant" as Israel. In Isaiah 49:3, the prophet writes - "You are my servant, Israel, in whom I will be glorified. How much cleared can it be?
The answer to the question posed in this thread's titleis - "No, the Bible never predicted anything of substance." Isaiah and the other prophets were not seers gazing into a magical crystal ball. They were absolutely unconcerned with people living in future generations and eras. The prophets were addressing people living in their own time.
To return to the Isaiah passage in qustion, there is not the slightest indication -or hint,or suggestion - whatsoever that the author is speaking of a future messiah. To begin with,the term messiah does not even appear once in the text. Nowhere in the book of Isaiah does the word messiah even appear!
Secondly, the sufferings of this "servant" are said to be in the past; they are narrated in the past tense, not the future tense. Why wold the author employ the past tense to describe a future event
It is extremely significant that no Jewish interpreter ever thought that this particular passage in Isaiah was indicating what the awaited Messiah would be like, or what the expected Messiah would do. Nowhere in Jewish exegesis is this passage understood as relating at all to the Messiah.
This passage - as it is interpreted by Christians - is an exemplar, a prime example, of how some Christians [by no means all] distort, warp and pervert the Jewish scriptures due to their biased beliefs about sin, punishment and redemption. Some Christians start off with twisted notions of sin, sacrifice, and redemption. They, then, "scrounge around" in the Jewish scrptures, and upon finding passages like the one in Isaiah, they wrench them out of context. They "retrofit" Jewish scriptures to suit their biased perspective.
But to reiterate, in Isaiah 41:8 and Isaiah 49:3, the text explicitly states the "suffering servant" is Israel itself, specifically Israel brought into Babylonian exile. No Jewish interpreter prior to the Christian era would have possibly construed this passage as pertaining to the Messiah. From the very beginning,certain Christian commentators - with their type/antitype/prototype nonsense - have allowed their prejudices and biases to run wild, thus warping their comprehension of the Jewish scriptures.
The Jewish scriptures, and the Christian scriptures, were written by - and addressed to - people living a long time ago. There is no prophecy in the Bible at all. In fact, all of the "prophecy" recorded in the Bible was written after the described events took place.