by oompa 20 Replies latest jw friends
(2
well now i am not crazy about the fact that wicked are mentioned both before and after this verse, and that is not the point....but it is in the Bible....."faith is not a possession of all people"...so why the beef?......GOD SAID NOT EVERYBODY CAN HAVE FAITH!......i feel better......oompa
Thessalonians3:2)2 and that we may be delivered from harmful and wicked men, for faith is not a possession of all people.
I don't see any beef.
Jesus said that no one comes to him except the Father calls them. John 6:44
The Father does not call everyone.
Faith is a gift from God, not something that we have on our own.
We don't choose God, God chooses us.
Peace
to bob 1999.................We don't choose God, God chooses us.
Why does he choose some and rejects the others?
I thought he loved everyone and there was no partiality on his part.
Thank you for quoting that bible verse, because I threw every bible I ever owned into the trash. I'm pleased to see after all these years it still means completely nothing to me.
The Father does not call everyone.This is a very telling thing. Like SSPO said if god does not call everyone that is showing partiality on his part.
If god truly desires all to be saved, wouldn't all be called by him?
Back to OOMPA's scripture if faith is not a possesion of all people are those without faith exempt from his mandates?
"If god truly desires all to be saved, wouldn't all be called by him?"
'Desires' is not the same as 'predestined'. Study Romans 8:28-30 and Romans 9
"Back to OOMPA's scripture if faith is not a possesion of all people are those without faith exempt from his mandates?"
NO. Man, without faith, gets exactly what he deserves.
Peace
"to bob 1999.................We don't choose God, God chooses us.
Why does he choose some and rejects the others?
I thought he loved everyone and there was no partiality on his part."
In Romans 9 Paul explains that God said He loved Jacob but hated Esau "though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad"
Then Paul assumes the reader will ask the question you ask "Is there injustice on God's part?"
Paul, using a quote from the OT "I [God] will have mercy on whom I have mercy" and makes the point that God is the one who is sovereign, not man. Not the clay but the potter.
Later in the chapter Paul assumes that the reader will ask your other question. If it's not up to man but up to God "Why does he [God] still find fault? For who can resist His will?"
Paul answers the question by first asking "who are you, a man, to question God?". (God is sovereign, man is not. The game is played God's way not ours.)
Then Paul makes it clear that the potter has all the power over the clay. Not the other way around as you seem to want it.
Romans 9:16 "For it [salvation] depends not upon man's will or work, but upon God's mercy".
Peace
"Like SSPO said if god does not call everyone that is showing partiality on his part.
If god truly desires all to be saved, wouldn't all be called by him?"
Do a study of the "two will's of God". The difference between desire and decree.
Peace
Wow bob you have all the answers. Tell me this If Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers,
Where's the peck of pickled peppers Peter Piper picked?
I don't, but to a believer the bible does.
Peace
