MATTHEW 24:3-51 WAS FULLFILLED DURING THE LIFE TIME OF JESUS' DISCIPLES. JESUS SAID "ALL THESE THINGS WILL COME UPON THIS GENERATION". (matthew24:34) HE WAS TALKING TO HIS DICIPLES WHEN HE SAID "THIS GENERATION" SO THEY UNDER STOOD IT MEANT THEIR GENERATION. THESE WORDS CAME TRUE IN 70 C. E. IT MARKED THE END OF THAT SYSTEM. VERSE 15-21 SHOW THE GREAT TRIBULATION FELL ON THEM. JESUS ALSO SAID THERE WOULD NOT BE A GREAT TRIBULATION LIKE THAT AGAIN. OF COURSE THE WATCHTOWER SAYS THERE WILL BE BUT I HAD RATHER BELIEVE JESUS. THE PREACHING OF THE GOOD NEWS WAS FULLFILLED BEFORE THAT END CAME. (COLOSSIANS 1:23.) THE WATCHTOWER SAYS IT HAS A GREATER FULLFILLMENT. WHERE DID THEY READ THAT IN THE BIBLE?
The Sign of Matthew 24 shows we ARE NOT in the last days
by Mad Sweeney 42 Replies latest watchtower bible
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Larsinger58
Also, why not ask about the "budding of the fig tree"?
This is a prophecy that the State of Israel would be set up shortly after the "great tribulation" which is the Holocaust and that the messiah would be "near at the doors" shortly after the State of Israel is set up.
This means, of course, the messiah does not arrive until the State of Israel is set up but he would arrive "near at the doors" after that. That would be accompanied by this "sign of the son of man."
That actually occurred. The eagles are said to "Wherever the CARCASS is, so the eagles will be gathered together." The "eagles" are linked with the woman in Revelation with the wings of an eagle, a woman "away from the face of the dragon" and hidden in the "wilderness" by God and thus a secret society of cults who watch over the messiah. It is they who observe this "sign of the son of man" from the time of his birth.
In other words, the "pre-messiah" is born and is tested for 40 years before approved to become the fleshly expression of the messiah who comes down and takes up his identity. But the "sign" begins to appear at his birth. The messiah appears as usual at the beginning of the 70th week, which is 1989-1996. That is, 36 CE ends the 70th week of the 1st coming. 490x4=1960+36=1996. So the 70th week of the second coming is 1989-1996. From that we know the messiah must be in his 40th year by the end of 1989 and thus would have to be born by 1949-1950. That's just a short while after 1948.
The imagery in the Revelation Book, though much later in 1998, proves the imagery was seen before the actual second coming in 1992. So the "sign of the son of man" appears from the time of the birth of the messiah. It it did! Even the WTS knows about the sign. Again, it causes the elect to "beat themselves in lamentation" because it is the depiction of a dead messiah. So it is fulfilled. Also it appears in the heavens because it is in the form of cloud imagery.
So, some of us are ecstatic that things are being fulfilled and some are scratching their heads wondering why Matthew isn't fulfilled.
LS
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sinis
Your all wrong. "Jesus" or whom-ever, was describing a CME or NEO, as were the others, such as Peter, John (Patmos), etc. They got their info from past civilizations like the Sumers, Babylonians, Egyptians, etc. Read the texts over again, with this understanding - makes complete sense. Other civilizations have tracked the same exact thing - Mayans, Hopi, etc. from completely different parts of the world. The only difference is that the writings of the M.E. civilizations and Bible did not know the "time", while the other civilizations pointed to a time frame, but did not know to what extent the destruction would be... open your eyes...
Oh, and the "son of man" is a term used for Enoch - Jesus always referred to the "Son of Man" in the third person... read the book of Enoch with open eyes and tell me what is really going on, as described by an individual who was trying to explain what he saw given the technology of the day, and terms/words not yet invented...
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Alwayshere
SINIS, YOU SOUND AS NUTTY AS LARSINGER.
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lovelylil2
sinis,
I have the book of Enoch and have read it. Enoch makes reference to God's "anointed one" as being like "a son of man". Where does it say Enoch is the son of man? Can you cite the text so I can look it up? Thanks Lilly
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sinis
SINIS, YOU SOUND AS NUTTY AS LARSINGER.
Nutty? Yea, makes more plausible sense than believing in the supernatural fantasys of the bible.
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sinis
Enoch 71:14 wherein he is describing himself as the Son of Man...
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Alwayshere
MAYBE ENOCH WAS REFERRING TO JESUS.
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sinis
James C. VanderKam writes of 1 Enoch 37-71: "Tucked between the two oldest parts of 1 Enoch is an apocalypse that goes under the name the Similitudes or Parables of Enoch. In it Enoch receives a series of revelations that are called parables; the first is in chaps. 38-44, the second in 45-47, and the third in 58-69. Around these three units the author/editor has placed introductory and concluding chapters (38 and 70-71). The focus in the Similitudes is on the eschatological punishment of sinners and the blessing of the righteous; a strong element of reversal is also involved. The downtrodden righteous do not realize that their salvation is already prepared, while the oppressive sinners at present fail to understand what awaits them. The text discloses that at the end the rightous will enjoy bliss while the mighty sinners will be punished and destroyed. In this work Enoch is termed a 'son of man,' and he is deeply involved in the final judgment of the wicked and reward of the righteous." (An Introduction to Early Judaism, p. 110)
Leonhard Rost writes: "Chapters 37-71, following an introduction in chapter 37, comprise three discourses made up of similitudes or parables (38-44; 45-47; and 58-69), together with appendices and supplements, into which the fragments of the Book of Noah mentioned above have been incorporated. The similitudes furnish information about the hierarchy of the angels and reveal atmospheric, meteorological, and astronomical secrets; they culminate in the appointment of Enoch as the Son of Man. They contain various traditions dating from earlier ages but in their present recension cannot be designated earlier than the first century B.C. J.T. Milik dates them as late as the second century C.E., above all because there is no trace of them at Qumran." (Judaism Outside the Hebrew Canon, pp. 138-139)
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PSacramento
When the term "son of man" is applied in the OT to a divine being, it is usually stated "one like the son of man", typically referring to the "human like" appearance.
