Pauls restriction on women was based on his understanding of Genesis and his view that women were inferior from men from the beginninng.
Someone may have thought that, but it wasn't Paul, dear one (again, peace to you!). Let's look at what Paul said on the same matter to the Corinthians:
"Let your women keep silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak; but to be submissive, as the law also says. And if they want to learn something, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is shameful for women to speak in church. " 1 Corinthains 14:34, 35
Before we look at that, though, let's look at what came before it:
"For you can all prophesy one by one, that all may learn and all may be encouraged. And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets. For God is not [the author] of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints."
Now, I ask you: why was it "shameful" for a woman to speak in the congregation (church)? First of all, they met in houses. However, the MEN still attended synagogue. So the ONLY place Paul could have been talking about was synagogues: public places. Could women speak in synagogues? No. They were public places and women weren't allowed to speak publicly. Were women given the gift of prophesying, though? According to the Prophets, they could... and would. And according to Peter and Luke, they did. Joel 2:28, 29; Acts 2:17, 18
What, though, is the point of the gift of prophesying if one can only share it with one's spouse? What if one didn't have a husband? Like these women:
"On the next [day] we who were Paul's companions departed and came to Caesarea, and entered the house of Philip the evangelist, who was [one] of the seven, and stayed with him. Now this man had four virgin daughters who prophesied." Acts 21:8, 9
I ask you: from WHOM did these women "learn"? Their husbands? What husbands? And TO whom did they prophesy? Their husbands???
Even so, let's now look at the "law" that Paul (?) stated made it "shameful" for women to speak in public. Note, I say "speak in public" because the Greek word to denote "church" at 1 Corinthians 14:35, is "ekklesia" which means... wait for it:
"a gathering of citizens called out from their homes into some public place, an assembly..."
So, what LAW... made it shameful for women to speak in such instances? The Law Covenant? Couldn't be. Why? Because there is no such law under Moses... because Miriam spoke in the assembly by authority from Moses... Deborah JUDGED the assembly by appointment from God... Hulda and others were prophetesses... even Anna was a prophetess... and my Lord did not condemn HER.
So what "law" was Paul referring to? What law... made it "shameful" for women to speak publicly... or hold dominion over men? ROMAN law. I posted the quotes and links to show this. If ROMAN women couldn't speak publicly and publicly teach men... a CHRISTIAN woman doing so would only raised GROUNDS for her to be persecuted, even put to death.
Why did Paul, though, invoke Adham and Eve? I explained that: at the time Israel was a hard-headed, hard-hearted, stiff-necked house. Both those who were Jews... and Jews who were now christians. They didn't listen... to the potential detriment of their lives. In some instances, to the lives of entire congregations! Heck, one of the pet peeves of the WTBTS is that members DON'T LISTEN. How many times are people warned not to save seats? Do they LISTEN? What does it TAKE to get people to LISTEN? Sometimes... the invocation of something that scares them: Armageddon (for the WTBTS) - Eve's subjection to Adham for the early christians.
But is was NOT their spiritual lives that Paul was trying to "keep safe" - it was their literal lives. Again, you DON'T have to take MY word for this. The same Source that "fed" me... can and will feed you. All you need to do... is ask.
Again, peace to you, all!
A slave of Christ,
SA