Just As In the Days of Noah

by Farkel 140 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • aChristian
    aChristian

    Joseph,

    It is certainly possible that the writer of Genesis did not record the entire conversation between God and Noah on this subject matter.

    Gweedo,

    Earlier in this thread I discussed the fact that Bible writers often used universal language to describe nonuniversal events. I gave several examples of their doing so. The literary term for such language is hyperbole. Thec one using such language in such a way is not considered to be either dishonest or inaccurate in his writing. Hyperbole is a widely used literary devise today and it was even more widely used in Bible times.

  • JosephAlward
    JosephAlward

    aChristian writes

    It is certainly possible that the writer of Genesis did not record the entire conversation between God and Noah on this subject matter.
    So, you think the Bible leaves out crucial information relating to the ark and flood? You think perhaps that the writer didn't think words straight from God were important enough for him to bother recording, or that the writer wasn't fully informed? Do you understand foolish such a defense is?

    Joseph F. Alward
    "Skeptical Views of Christianity and the Bible"

    * http://members.aol.com/jalw/joseph_alward.html

  • waiting
    waiting

    howdy AChristian,

    I'm an agnostic at this point - but I have to commend you on your ability to carry on a lengthy discussion in the face of some insults, and carry forth. I really don't care much either way on the flood discussion, as to whether it happened, or was territorial. I don't believe it was global. But absolutes in an ancient language are being taken at face value, and I don't think that's possible, as most people don't speak or write at face value. They speak & write in shadings of thought.

    The "you" God referred to may have meant all people who Noah thought might end up being on the ark.- ac
    If God said explicitly to Noah "You....." - and Noah took it as literal, then it would seem that he could have squirreled food away only for himself. However, he didn't understand it that way in the account, he (which is not literal - as his family helped) put food away for his entire family and animals.

    Is it totally illogical for him to think that God was talking to him alone? No......as jw's (and others) do it all the time. They try to save themselves, but when asked to help others (even if it hurts) many persons will say "God will provide." The Jews did the same - it's almost a universal flaw in people. Noah could have pulled the same attitude "Well, God said 'you' - and that means 'me.'"

    And btw, it was never mentioned that Noah did all this himself - he had his family to help. But God specifically said "you" build the ark, not "you and your family." If this account has to be taken totally as literal.....then why didn't God balk at his family's activity?

    I, for one, hold to the argument that much of the Bible was spoken of as a history for a nomadic people, later put in writing. Embellishments were added to help them understand & present themselves as better than they were - and people do it today too. Who thinks that the George Washington actually chopped down his father's cherry tree? It helped that people to establish themselves as a semblance of a budding nation.

    howdy Farkel

    Where is it written in the Bible, or which accepted Bible scholar (outside the WTBTS) stated that God invented the Hewbrew language? I've read the WTBTS speculate that - but no one else.

    These multiple-paragraph posts are dizzying, eh?

    waiting

  • waiting
    waiting

    Hello Joseph,

    It is certainly possible that the writer of Genesis did not record the entire conversation between God and Noah on this subject matter. ac
    So, you think the Bible leaves out crucial information relating to the ark and flood? ja
    You're twisting his comment. He didn't say anything about "crucial information." Big difference.

    The Bible also says that all the sayings of Jesus weren't written down (which makes sense, since he would have lived 33.5 appox.years.) Does that mean he was thought to be unimportant by his followers? Afterall, some of it might have been crucial - depends upon the person writing, now doesn't it?

    waiting

  • GWEEDO
    GWEEDO

    AC

    Gweedo,

    Earlier in this thread I discussed the fact that Bible writers often used universal language to describe nonuniversal events. I gave several examples of their doing so. The literary term for such language is hyperbole. Thec one using such language in such a way is not considered to be either dishonest or inaccurate in his writing. Hyperbole is a widely used literary devise today and it was even more widely used in Bible times.

    yeah I know what you guyz say.

    "All the high hills under the whole heaven were covered"

    actually means:

    "the waters covered all the mountains above the horizon visible to the people on the ark."

    Atleast that's what COJ says.

    Whats the point in using hyperbole here. Why use it???? Why not just say what you mean. It's very misleading to say "WHOLE heaven" when you really mean "to the horizon". I mean, I understand the use of hyperbole. I know hyperbole is good to use to emphasize a point. But what point was the biblical author trying to get across when he uses the term 'WHOLE heaven'. He doesn't seem to be emphasizing anything...he's just being completely misleading, as I see it.

    I might have understood if he had just said:

    "all the high hills under heaven were covered"

    but he has thrown in the word WHOLE

    HEY...maybe he did that to emphasize a point. That being that the hills under the WHOLE heaven were actually covered.

    Now...'WHOLE heavens', to me, doesn't exactlty translate into: 'the land of Noah'. I think a more apt description would maybe be: the whole world as Noah knew it. Of which I find hard to believe didn't include knowledge of some high mountains. I mean, the guy eventually made it to ararat...to Northern Iraq somewhere, and if your've seen a few news reports of the Kurds fleeing Sadams troopers, you'll know it's pretty hilly terrain up there.

    SO

    I have to conclude that the bible is talking of a pretty big deluge. The likes of which could never have happened.

    what do ya fink?

  • RWC
    RWC

    This board has alot of discussions about the flood and whether it was global or not. Some say it should be taken literally others say it shouldn't. Skeptics say it scientifically couldn't have been global so if that is the proper interpretation, the Bible cannot be taken as being true.

    My thoughts on this debate are :

    1. The problem of whether the flood account was intended to be taken as a literal world flood or as an account of God's judgment on mankind through an allegory is really a question of interpretation, not of whether the event happened.

    2. Those who use the account of the flood ( and creation )as a reason to throw out the entire Bible are using the first nine chapters of the first book of the Bible to discount the rest of it. Again this is really a question of interpretation and not on whether God created the universe or passed judgment on his people.

    If the real question is only whether the accounts are taken literally or not, than the problem is our lack of understanding on the proper interpretation, not on whether God exists or dealt with his creation. The fact that the Bible has proven time and again to be a reliable source of history ( more so than any other spiritual text) more logically should be taken into account than dismissing it because of a problem of the proper interpretation of the first nine chapters of teh first book.

  • aChristian
    aChristian

    Waiting,

    Thank you for your help in answering Joseph's objections.

    Mike

  • aChristian
    aChristian

    Gweedo,

    You wrote: I think a more apt description would maybe be: the whole world as Noah knew it. Of which I find hard to believe didn't include knowledge of some high mountains. I mean, the guy eventually made it to ararat...to Northern Iraq somewhere ... it's pretty hilly terrain up there.

    Concerning this issue and others COJ posted the following information a while back:

    The "Ararat" of the Bible was not a mountain, but originally a geographical area, which later, in the Assyrian period, was consolidated into a kingdom (2 Kings 19:37; Isa. 37:38; Jer. 51:27). The later kingdom lay north and northeast of Mesopotamia with its center around the seas of Van and Urmia. In cuneiform inscriptions the form of the name is "Urartu". Gen. 8:4 states that the Ark "came to rest on the mountains (or ’hills’) of Ararat." The plural, "mountains, hills," should be noted. It is only in later Christian tradition that the mountain of Agri Dag in northeastern Turkey came to be called "Ararat" and was identified as the site of the landing.

    The Targums and the early Syriac translation render Ararat as "Korduene" (Karduchia), and this is also where Berossus locates the site of landing, according to Josephus (Ant. I.3.6). Korduene seems to refer to the area occupied by the Kurds, Kurdistan, or the former Armenia. The Latin versions, in fact, render Ararat as "Armenia". This roughtly corresponds to the earlier kingdom of Urartu, which was destroyed late in the 7th century BC, after which the name disappears. An excellent recent work on the Urartu/Ararat kingdom is URARTU—DAS REICH AM ARARAT, by Ralf-Bernhard Wartke (Mainz am Rhein, 1993).

    Archaeological findings show that the southern border of the kingdom of Urartu extended down to the area of Nineveh (close to present-day Mosul) and the Zab rivers. (It is quite possible that the earlier geographical area called Urartu was larger and extended further south and southeast.) Vast areas of the southern kingdom of Urartu was only between 300 and 200 meters above sea level.

    But at the time of the Flood these areas may have been much lower, as the mountain building movements of Iraq and southwestern Persia have been going on since that time. Drs. G. M. Lees and N. L. Falcon point out: "This mountain system has developed out of a broader zone of depression or geosyncline, by a relative approach between central Persia and the stable massif of Arabia which compressed the mobile strip between and formed a series of giant earth waves or fold mountains. The time of the maximum tangential movement was in the late Pliocene but THE ELEVATION OF THE MOUNTAIN BELT AS A WHOLE, AS DISTINCT FROM FOLD MOVEMENTS, CONTINUED INTO RECENT TIME AND IS IN FACT STILL ACTIVE." ("The Geographical History of the Mesopotamian Plains," The Geographical Journal, Vol. CXVIII, 1952, p. 27. My emphasis.)

    With respect to the Hebrew plural noun ’harim’, which clearly can mean both "mountains" and "hills", J.H. insists that it is "typically bad exegesis to argue that ... it is possible to translate the expression ’high hills’." His statement implies that "high hills" is an impossible translation. If it is, why did the translators, not only of King James version, but also the modern translators of the New King James Version translate "high hills" at Gen. 7:19? Bullinger’s The Companion Bible, too, translates "high hills". And Ferrar Fenton’s The Five Books of Moses, has "all the hills and mountains". I do not think any of these translators chose the word "hills" because they believed the Flood was local, so that their choice of word was due to "bad exegesis". And contrary to J.H. (and myself, of course), they had a thorough knowledge of the Hebrew language. The only reasonable conclusion to draw, therefore, is that "high hills" is a fully possible and legitimate rendering. And it would be especially appropriate if the Flood story, as is commonly believed, originated in Mesopotamia, where the only mountains the inhabitants could see were hills.

    I have checked just a couple of dozens translations. I’m sure there are more examples that could be added by a Bible collector.

    That an enormous Flood drowned at least the southern plains of Mesopotamia and swept away the pre-Sumerian Ubaid civilization in the area seems now to have been clearly established by recent geological and geomorphological research in Mesopotamia and the Persian Gulf area, as I pointed out in an earlier post (September 25, 1999).

    It seems obvious to me that this disastrous catastrophe was the historical background of the Biblical and Mesopotamian Flood traditions. It would be foolish just to ignore this evidence or wave it aside. How far northward this "giant flood" reached is still an open question. An enormous sea wave from the Persian Gulf could reach a very long way northwards along the plain, even up to the mountainous districts of northern Iraq. It should be remembered that most of the Mesopotamian plains below that area are very low. The whole delta lowland south of Baghdad, for example, is extremely flat and rises only a few meters from the Persian Gulf to Baghdad 600 kilometers north of the Gulf, so that Baghdad is still less than 10 (ten) meters above sea level! Therefore, to categorically reject the possibility that a local inundation of the Mesopotamian plains about 5,000 years ago could have reached the areas of southern Urartu, would be a sign of ignorance, stubborn dogmatism, and blind faith.

    Marine shells, marine terraces, and other evidence show that the waters that drowned the cities of the Ubaid civilization was caused by a massive movement of the sea from the Gulf. This finding agrees with the statement at Gen. 7:11 that the waters of the Flood had two sources: (1) "the fountains of the great deep were broken up, and (2) the windows of heaven were opened." The "great deep" (Hebr. ’tehom rabba’) is used in the Bible especially of the sea (e.g., Isa. 51:10; 63:3; Jonah 2:4). The inundation from the Persian Gulf explains why the ark of Noah (= the Sumerian Ziusudra, who is stated to have lived in the city of Shuruppak in southern Mesopotamia) was brought northwards. If the Flood had been caused only by rains from above and inundations of the rivers Euphrates and Tigris, the ark would have been brought southwards to the Gulf.

    Anyway, there was indeed a Flood. I believe it was local and limited to Mesopotamia, as is also indicated by the Sumerian Flood tradition, in which it is stated that the Flood covered "The Land", sum. ’kalam’. ’Kalam’ was the name the Sumerians used of their own country, which roughly covered the area from the Gulf up to present Baghdad, before it in the later Akkadian period was divided into Sumer and Akkad. The Biblical and Mesopotamian Flood traditions are closely related, although it cannot be shown that the Biblical story was derived from the others, or vice versa. They clearly originate in a common source or event. That’s why it seems likely to me that the Biblical tradition, like the Mesopotamian traditions, speaks of a local catastrophe. As we have pointed out earlier, the Biblical word for "earth", ’erets’, usually was used in the sense of "land", and more rarely in the sense of "earth" (= the globe). It seems probable, therefore, that it referred to the "land" of Mesopotamia, like the Sumerian word ’kalam’. The context should always decide whether ’erets’ means "land" or "earth". And if the Scriptural context is not enough for deciding the matter, the historical context in which the story originated may be our best guide.

  • Farkel
    Farkel

    waiting,

    : Where is it written in the Bible, or which accepted Bible scholar (outside the WTBTS) stated that God invented the Hewbrew language? I've read the WTBTS speculate that - but no one else.

    It's not written in the Bible, but since this is a dub discussion board, then I present things for discussion from the dub's point-of-view.

    Any sensible person knows that God didn't invent Hebrew. He invented "Canadian." That's why the Bible's translations are all screwed up. Eh?

    Farkel

  • gumby
    gumby

    Farkle: Quote... This apology is particularly pathetic because it is asserted that the Hebrews didn't have a language well enough developed to have a word that described only a particular region. No! They only had a phrase which described the entire earth and which could either mean the actual entire earth, or the adjoining two block to one's house! How ridiculous

    I have wondered why God did not explain things PRECISE many times over.
    Why couldn't he have said things like this...(if the trinity were not true)
    God " I am God. Long ago I created a son seperate from me and he is lesser than me. I was before he was because I created him"

    Or...( if man IS a soul)
    God " A man IS a soul. He dosen't have a soul that is seperate from him...when he dies , so does his soul, then nothing about him lives and he has to wait until I reserrect him later on.

    Wouldn't it be nice if he wrote the bible like this...How come he didn't?

    There would be little if any differing religious ideas on scripture,hence less religions, hevce less problems, hence, blah blah blah!

    Why didn't he?
    Could it be that not much FAITH would be needed if All THINGS were crystal clear?

    Would we need faith to believe, if we knew all things?
    If this was God's reason ....and I'm not saying it is....then possibly this is why we do not know if he flooded the whole land, or only parts of it,... and he said it like he did.

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