TRANSLATORS DESTROYED THE NAMES IESOUS XRISTOS
Hebrews 13:8 ihsouV {Iesous} cristoV {Xristos} cqeV {yesterday} kai {and} shmeron {today} o {the} autoV {mismo,} kai {y} eiV {by} touV {the} aiwnaV {ages}
by Jaime l de Aragon 68 Replies latest watchtower beliefs
TRANSLATORS DESTROYED THE NAMES IESOUS XRISTOS
Hebrews 13:8 ihsouV {Iesous} cristoV {Xristos} cqeV {yesterday} kai {and} shmeron {today} o {the} autoV {mismo,} kai {y} eiV {by} touV {the} aiwnaV {ages}
There you go and I always thought it was Yeshua Ben David
It is a sensitive issue, the J is never used in the original writings, the letter y or I, is a name that was changed to Je-sus, which means something unpleasant and contempt, but as I said is very delicate and do not know how expose
TRANSLATORS DESTROYED THE NAMES IESOUS XRISTOS
It's the same thing, Jaime. Just an Anglicisation.
As I told you yesterday,
1) "X" in English transliterates xi, not chi. That's your first mistake.
2) You leave off the final sigma for no reason. Why? The two words are supposed to grammatically agree.
I see that your source is: http://www.angelfire.com/folk/anticristos/elevangelio.html
I can tell that that is your source because you left one of the Spanish words (mismo) untranslated in the OP. Maybe in Spanish or in some Spanish dialects "x" might transliterate chi (I don't know really), but certainly not in usual English where x=xi and ch=chi.
And that webpage seems really crank to me, btw. Unsurprising since you seem to mostly post crank ideas.
This page big mistakes, but comparing with other learned that his name is not Jesus
It is very serious, because Jesus is composed of the phoneme, SÚS (not in English),
SÚS is Latin word for animal (Horse,etc) the word J did not exist came after
Like Jehovah, not name of the Creator, Jesus also was disrupted
http://www.jehovahs-witness.net/watchtower/beliefs/235520/1/Who-is-Jehovah
http://www.jehovahs-witness.net/watchtower/bible/239715/1/Who-is-Jehovah-ll-part
It is a sensitive issue, the J is never used in the original writings, the letter y or I,
The letter "Y" just like "J" was never used in the original writings. It does however represent a phonemic contrast in English which was not represented in Greek; in Greek /i/ when followed by another vowel or diphthong represented the sound /y/. Same thing with Latin: Iulius.
"J" originally represnted the sound /y/; it arose as an orthographic variant of "I". In many European languages, "J" represents that same sound (Ja!!). But in Old French, the letter started to represent a palatal /zh/ sound and English borrowed it from French, where we use it to represent a similar sound, the palato-alveolar affricate ("j" as in "judge"), which was common in English. We needed a letter for it, French offered a letter that represented a sound that was close, so we borrowed it! English speakers therefore pronounce all words borrowed from Latin that contain letters originally written with "I" and later with "J" with that affricate sound, but that is not mispronouncing Latin, we are are not speaking Latin, we have adapted the Latin words into English so that they are now English words. Same thing with names. All Hebrew names with an intial yod /y/, borrowed through Greek and then Latin, were imported into English, and we use them as English names. "Jeremy" is a normal English name. It comes from Jeremias < Ieremias < Y e remiyahu. But we don't pronounce it with Hebrew or Greek pronounciation; we do not pronoune "Jeremy" as "Yeremy", as a normal English name given to children, we say "Jeremy". We do that for all foreign names. It would be much too hard to sort through the orthographies and foreign pronunciation systems to pronounce names as they were in their source language; we pronounce them as they are in English. "Paris" we pronounce with an "s" that is not used in Parisian French. Spanish "Jesus" pronounces the "j" the way it is usually pronounced in that language, as an /h/.
And even the Greek form Ièsous modifies the name to adapt it to Greek phonology and spelling. So "I" is used because Greek lacks a letter corresponding to Hebrew yod. Similarly, there is no sound in Greek for /š/, represented by Hebrew shin, so the closest thing /s/ is used. And nothing in Greek corresponds to an `ayin, so that letter is dropped entirely. Then, in order for the name to behave grammatically in Greek, a final inflection is added to the name (the final /s/ when it occurs in the nominative).
is a name that was changed to Je-sus, which means something unpleasant and contempt
??? Source?
SÚS is Latin word for animal (Horse,etc)
What does that have to do with anything?
So now we are mixing up Greek with Latin?
Further non-Biblical evidence to show that pagan Christians were recognized as those who worshipped Iesous Xrist (Transformed in Je-sus, it means blasphemy ass) is seen in some first century Pagan graffiti, which attempts to ridicule pagan Christians by depicting a believer worshipping a horse type headed god on a cross - Amazing confirmation of this transformation!
Is this the early mockery of the Mystery Schools against the true Hebrew Messiah and Savior?
Further non-Biblical evidence to show that pagan Christians were recognized as those who worshipped Iesous Xrist (Transformed in Je-sus, it means blasphemy ass)
That was not based on any popular etymology of the name Ièsous. There is nothing in that graffito that comments on the name. The image draws on a well-worn antisemitic motif about Judaism....many pagans believed that Jews worshipped or venerated that animal. Many anti-Jewish slurs originally aimed at Jews were applied to Christians. Tertullian even wrote about a pagan who converted to Judaism who drew similar cartoons aimed at Christians.
I find it funny how you are making a big deal about the name's spelling yet fail to recognize you are bungling it yourself by using the "X".
Also, if we should be picky enough to have "ou" as the second vowel instead of "u" (though this is normal Greek to Latin conversion), why do you still spell the first vowel as "e"? Greek makes a distinction between epsilon and eta.