I would take the IVF discussion a step further...wasn't Mary artificially inseminated to become pregnant with Jesus?
NWT
26 In her* sixth month the angel Ga′bri·el+ was sent forth from God to a city of Gal′i·lee named Naz′a·reth, 27 to a virgin promised in marriage to a man named Joseph of David’s house; and the name of the virgin+ was Mary.*+ 28 And when he went in before her he said: “Good day,+ highly favored one, Jehovah*+ is with you.”+ 29 But she was deeply disturbed at the saying and began to reason out what sort of greeting this might be. 30 So the angel said to her: “Have no fear, Mary, for you have found favor+ with God; 31 and, look! you will conceive in your womb and give birth to a son,+ and you are to call his name Jesus.*+ 32 This one will be great+ and will be called Son of the Most High;+ and Jehovah* God will give him the throne+ of David his father,+ 33 and he will rule as king over the house of Jacob forever, and there will be no end of his kingdom.”+ 34 But Mary said to the angel: “How is this to be, since I am having no intercourse+ with a man?” 35 In answer the angel said to her: “Holy spirit+ will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy,+ God’s Son.
Obviously, becoming pregnant by means other than intercourse was ok in the case of Mary...food for thought.
If I really want to stretch, wouldn't a woman having a pelvic exam be guilty of "loose conduct" under the WT definition? After all, it is willingly allowing the touching of private parts...and if you get the exam on an annual basis, it would be considered practicing loose conduct...time for a JC!