The WT says yes. I think no. I looked it up a few weeks ago and they said "we can be sure he used his fathers name". For me the argument is more just interesting from a biblical and academic stand point.
I would think if he used his personal name that was taboo, then the religious leaders would have complained loudly. It would seem to me that something like that would be important enough that one of the writers would have mentioned it as well. I just don't see it happening. It's annoying WT makes an assertion as if its a fact with no evidence to support it. But, then again, why would that surprise me!
...OUTLAW