Punky, difficult question. When I read up on God's name, I came across evidence of Jesus being involved with miracles. Later Jewish writings accused him of effecting miracles by using God's name, indirectly admitting that he was responsible for miracles and that he did use God's name. I know it's not exactly what you're looking for, but it's the best I can do. I looked it up and this is what the source has to say:
According to the Jewish Talmud, according to uncensored versions, Jesus Christ effected miracles by calling on the Name, an indirect acknowledgement that he did use God’s name. He himself declared: "I have made your name known to the people..." (cf. John 17:6, 26; 5:43). Early Coptic texts (Pistis Sophia) tells of Jesus praying to his father by addressing him by various names and incantations: Aeeiouo, Iao, Aoi, and others. In another passage, Jesus addresses his Father in the following names and words: Iao Iouo, Aoi, Oia, and others. This is an indirect indication that he did pronounce God’s Name.