Here is my thought:
Jesus' statements about 'marrying and being given in marriage' occur in the following texts:
Matthew 22:30; 24:38; Mark 12:25; Luke 17:27; 20:34, 35
They can be broken down into two catagories:
1. Descriptions of people who did not heed warnings: Mt 24:38; Luke 17:27
2. The discussion with the Sadducees involving the resurrection: Mt 22:30; Mk 12:25; Lk 20:34, 35
In both catagories, Jesus' use of the phrase DOES NOT describe all people who might 'marry of be given in marriage.'
In the instances involving not heeding divine warnings (Mt 24:38; Lu 17:27), it is describing doing this to the exclusion of more important things. (Timewise, Luke's instance is about 6 weeks or so prior to the instance in Matthew 24:38. The Matthean saying is a pared down version of the Lukan version of the saying. Note also that Noah and his sons and their wives also "married and were given in marriage." Yet they are not included among those that Jesus described.)
In the instance with the Sadducees (Mt 22:30; Mk 12:25; Lk 20:34, 35 - which is really all the same instance) it is in answer to the hypothetical problem that the Sadducees raised (the seven brothers all married to the same woman), which problem, they felt, made the resurrection an untenable problem. In their view, when all these men were raised, their individual desire for the same woman would create social chaos (multiplied on a world scale). An impossible situation to untangle. Thus, to them, God would never create such an absurd world order.
But just as in the previous catagory, where Jesus was not referring to everyone that 'marries & gives in marriage,' note Jesus' response:
(Luke 20:34, 35 NWT) . . .Jesus said to them: “The children of this system of things marry and are given in marriage, 35 but those who have been counted worthy of gaining that system of things and the resurrection from the dead neither marry nor are given in marriage.
According to Jesus' response, the Sadducees are mistaken because they are basing their view of marriage on how it is practiced in "this system of things (or age)." Adam and Eve were 'married and given in marriage' also. But they were not 'children of this system of things.' They were 'children of God,' just as resurrected people will be.
That allows for Jesus' saying that resurrected ones 'will not marry and be given in marriage,' to be taken to mean that they won't have the same view and practice of it as do "the children of this system of things."
To be sure, that leaves alot about life after the ressurrection unanswered. But then again, Jesus was responding to critics who had made their minds up that they could prove Jesus was a fool. I doubt that Jesus was interested in giving them such details beyond proving their assumptions false.
As possible indications that the solution to the problem you raised might be somewhat beyond out present imperfect ability to fully comprehend, consider these things:
Adam (according to Genesis) is not described as getting depressed when he noticed that he did not have a mate. According to the account, Adam merely notices the incongruity of his situation vis-a-vis the animals. It is God who says he shouldn't continue alone. And after being united with Eve, Adam is only described as having relations with her after some time passed. (Compare what would be the normally expected response of a man in his prime spending all his time with a 'perfectly' beautiful woman who stayed naked.) Admittedly, some of this point consists of an 'argument from silence.'
Jesus, perfect like Adam, also seemed (based on the gospel accounts) to be perfctly content without a mate. And yet perfectly able to have a mate if he so chose. His choice was simply that his 'mission' did not require it.
Compare also Jesus' response to the disciples' idea of staying unmarried:
(Matthew 19:10, 11 NWT) . . .The disciples said to him: “If such is the situation of a man with his wife (i. e. the limited availability of divorce according to Jesus in Mt 19:9), it is not advisable to marry.” 11 [Jesus] said to them: “Not all men make room for the saying (i.e. to stay unmarried), but only those who have the gift.
The NWT (and some other translations) mangle the last phrase of verse 11. "Who have the gift" is more literally, "to whom it has been granted (or given)" The passive tense of the verb ("has been granted") is usually taken as being a 'divine passive.' In essence, Jesus is saying that, a man who chooses (of his own will) to not marry has in some way gotten that ability by means of divine grant.
Similarly, part of Jesus response to the Sadducees' problem was that they "did not know the power of God."
At any rate, you asked for viewpoints. That is mine. Subject, of course, to any new infomation I can find. It doesn't directly answer your question. But it does, to me, open alot more possibilities about what may happen after the resurrection.
Take Care
