Neon: My point is simply that if you are arguing whether a miracle has taken place (including accruate prophecy as a kind of miracle), you can't argue against it on the basis that miracles can't happen. That is begging the question. When we consider whether the Gospels were written early or late, if we say that they must have been late solely because the sort of miracle they describe (i.e., true prophecy) simply can't happen, then we are effectively engaging in that fallacy.
I agree.
If, on the other hand, you are asserting that true prophecy is merely rare and not impossible, there is no reaon to conclude that Jesus - presented as the Messiah of God - could not have been one of the rare cases of a true prophet.
But we should be sceptical of the idea.
For instance, suppose my fingerprints was found on the murder weapon. I could claim they were planted there as part of a secret coverup perpetrated by agents, the mafia or some other covert group.
This would be highly unlikely (but mind, it would not require breaking natural laws like a miracle would!), but not impossible, and it would be unfair of the prosecuter to dismiss it as impossible.
However, I hope you would agree, the implausibility of it taking place would mean it would not negate the value of the fingerprint as indicating my guilt, and it would NOT be reasonable for me to argue it should be dismissed simply because it is possible I was victim of a large coverup.
Similarly, I simply argue the description of certain events taking place in year 70 imply the book was written after year 70 with high probability.
If you feel that conclusion is unsound I would like to hear the argument.