Hi Ozziepost:
I think we've had this discussion before, but I'll just point you to the best authority, Jesus' words in the Bible, OK?"look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things" - Matthew 28:20 (NWT)It doesn't come any plainer than that, does it?Cheers, Ozzie
Of course, you are absolutely right. But, behold! As you and many others can see, your astute observation went again, completely over the head of Mr. "AK" [All-Knowing]. Clearly Mr. AK is not a keen student of scripture. Did you notice when attempting to answer Larc's question above, he went off into the ridiculous "wheat/weed" routine, wts style, which by now has been rendered totally impotent by keen bible scholarship of Carl Olaf Jonnson and others, writings of former JWs that Mr. AK knows nothing about.
I'd like to make a comment or two on Matthew 28:20 mentioned above.
A careful review of Luke 19:11-27, the parable of the minas, shows exactly the same thing and reiterates your germaine point. Namely, a first century parousia of Jesus, culminating in 70 c.e.
For example, Luke 19:11 shows the purpose of the parable. To show the disciples that the Kingdom of God was NOT going to "display itself instantly". So Jesus gave this parable. Verses 12-15 shows Christ goes off to "secure kingly power" for himself. In the meantime, they were told "do business till I COME". (vs. 13) Later, "when he got back", or "returns," he makes his inspection of his disciples, the christian body of believers. He makes his inspection only "AFTER HAVING SECURED KINGLY POWER" for himself. Verse 27 explicitly shows the time-frame when the final inspection occurs. When he has all his "enemies who did not want him to become king" brought before him and "slaughtered". This is the Jewish nation in 70 c.e. A very important point. But validated by the contents of Matthew 24:2.
So, when the foretold "slaughter" occurs, yes, Jesus is king at this time. He is a reigning "king" when this "slaughter" occurs. He has been crowned "king" in the heavens by his heavenly father in the first century. And as "king", is allowed to "sit upon Jehovah's throne," again, in the first century. Which means, he is "enthroned" in the first century.
Psalms 55:19, in the NWT clearly shows it is impossible to sit upon a throne, and NOT BE ENTHRONED. But the WTS nor JWs cannot seem to understand this point. They act as though it is beyond them. Because if they admitted this, they would have to "trash" their entire religion. The date of 1914 becomes meaningless. A false doctrine, a "commandment of men" taught for 125 years. (Mark 7:7-9) But the point need not be beyond us. Jesus was "enthroned" in the first century as "king". And he "returned" in 70 c.e. to bring "vengeance" and "wrath" upon the city of Jerusalem. (Luke 21:23, 24)
Therefore based upon that understanding, Jesus could truthfully say: "I WILL BE WITH YOU for all the days until the conclusion of the system of things". That is the "conclusion" of the Jewish "system of things". (Matthew 28:20) He could say this, since he personally MONITORED the christian congregations of the first century right up to 70 c.e. and the destruction of the temple. (See Revelation chapters 2-3 and the "7 congregations").
Therefore, its appropriate to say Jesus was "enthroned" in the first century because as we know, Jesus was allowed to "sit upon Jehovah's throne" in the first century. (Rev. 3:21) And, it would be impossible for someone to sit upon a throne, without himself being "enthroned" as king. We know this became possible only because Jesus was "declared a Son" of God, in the permanent sense, at his resurrection from the dead. And when Jesus would be "declared a Son", God's Word shows he would at the same time, be "installed as king". (See Romans 1:4; Psalms 2:6,7)
And all of this happened in the first century, when he went back to heaven "to secure kingly power" for himself, just as the parable shows. (Luke 19:12) Afterwhich, Jesus could make his "return", just as he promised the disciple on the mount of olives. He would return, or come again, or have his second "parousia", when as he promised, at the very time "when by no means a stone [of this temple] would not be left upon a stone and not thrown down." There can be no doubt, this was a direct reference to the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem, which as we know, occurred later in 70 c.e. However, we note, this startling, sensational statement by Jesus was followed with the question: "When will these things be, and what will be the sign of your parousia [coming; return] and the conclusion of the system of things". The disciples would understand this as the conclusion of the Jewish system of things. When the temple would be destroyed. Sensational news to them. (Matthew 24:2,3)
So, we would be be wise to then, to the obvious, and connect the return, second parousia, or coming of Jesus with the destruction of the temple, when as Jesus said, "a stone would not be left upon a stone" -- the destruction of the temple in 70 c.e. This is the only way the first century disciples of Jesus could possibly understand the situation.
And of course, this conclusion makes perfect sense as it matches the foretold events of Luke 19:11-27 too. Namely, Jesus would, in 70 c.e., settle all accounts with his disciples and at the same time, bring vengeance upon a people "who did not want him to become king" by destroying their "temple" and entire religious "system of things". (Matthew 24:3; Luke 19:14, 27)
winsome
Edited by - winsome on 21 July 2002 12:2:30
Edited by - winsome on 21 July 2002 12:4:48