Why do so many people believe that jesus is god?

by Legendary U.2.K. 89 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Jeremiah Lee
    Jeremiah Lee
    My personal feelings about this is that both the trinitarians and the jdubs have it wrong.

    I think that for several reasons, but the main one is because I think they don't have an accurate understanding of what the 'Word' is. I believe that the 'Word' spoken of in John 1:1 is the Word that God created to say "I AM".

    This means that Jesus/the Word is God because that Word reflects what God Is, but yet He's created, and in subjection.

    Most people think that the Word of God is the bible, so they can't see how He can be created and be God, or be God and still be created.

    Note the context of John1:1-13. I've been debating a christadelphian on these passages so I'm out of kink with the JW mindset right now.

    Revelations 19:13 "....and His name is "The Word of God".

    Note in Heb1:10-12 that the Father CALLS Jesus "YHWH" ..cf..OT reference. Why would the YHWH address another as YHWH? Is he "name-bearing" to himself?

    God bless,

    Jeremiah L.G.

    Edited by - Jeremiah Lee on 9 August 2002 7:37:45

  • siegswife
    siegswife

    From what I've gathered YHWH isn't used anywhere in the New Testament. If they aren't using the "Word", why wouldn't they say His Name is "the Word of God"? Those that understand what the "Word of God" is would understand what is being referred.

    Do you believe the "Word of God" is the Scriptures? Why didn't they say His Name is "the Scriptures"? And on that subject, do you really believe that 'all things came into existence" through the Bible? All things came into existence "whether the things in heaven or the things on earth" for and through the Bible?

    That makes less sense than the trinity!

  • plmkrzy
    plmkrzy

    Excuse me for doing some cutting and pasting and please pardon my, not so scholarly, explanations of my personal views. And longer then usual.

    I dont like being real formal.

    *Note how Christ "gives" the Kingdom to the Father. Note additionally how the Son will only be MADE "subject" to the Father when this happens. What is Christ's relative position to the Father before subjection? Equal. Otherwise there would be no "subjection".

    ***********************

    1Corinthians15: 24 "Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power... vs28.... When He has done this, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECT to Him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all."

    Christ was/is a priest

    There are no "level of degrees" in worship given to the Father and Son here. They are honored as equals. See Rev20: 6 "...but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." What does a priest do? Serve -'latreuo', i.e. service only allowable to God.

    OR by simply reading the passage rather then PARTICULAR words in it, it can mean simply that authority was given to Christ over the earth (complete authority) for a time. Which would only be fair since he did suffer quite a bit of pain and humiliation while on earth being sacrificed and maybe would like a period of time all to himself to even a few scores per sa. Perfectly understandable. Normally Vengeance is mine sayth the Lord Which means he can do with it what ever he wants. He can give it to his son for a while if he wants to and we have no authority to dispute it.

    God the Father gives Christ complete authority (over the earth/our universe, small as it may be) for certain purposes and when he is finished Christ hands it back.

    About that time would be a good time for some more Books to be either revealed or written to continue the saga. Because that would cover Revelations.

    There are no "level of degrees" in worship given to the Father and Son here.

    Different meanings can translate simply by highlighting different words/phrases in most scriptures. Depending on what ones OBJECTIVE is.

    when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.(ON EARTH) .. vs28.... When He has done this, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECT to Him who put everything under him

    To Him who put everything under him

    SO what exactly IS everything?

    Everything pertinent to US?

    Everything pertinent to God?

    We dont know about everything that is with in our reach much less everything that goes beyond that.

    By only highlighting, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECT and focusing on that is to suggest there was no prior arrangement. As though it was that way throughout all infinity right up until THAT VERSE.

    (cf. 1 Peter 2:8, the Jews who "stumble when they disbelieve the word": NEB)

    It doesnt say when they disbelieved the Bible.

    It says when they disbelieved The Word

    When they disbelieved JESUS The Word of God.

    Here is a link to some interesting literature I came across and saved.

    I do not agree with the author BUT I did use some scriptures and just left out his conclusions.

    http://ccat.sas.upenn.edu/~humm/Topics/JewishJesus/josephus.html

    This is the only direct discussion of Jesus to be found in the writings of Josephus.

    The second column contains an Arabic quotation of the Josephus passage that has a much less Christian flavor. Some scholars have argued that the Arabic version has a more likely claim to originality.

    Arabic summary, presumably of Antiquities 18.63. From Agapios' Kitab al-'Unwan ("Book of the Title," 10th c.).
    The translation belongs to Shlomo Pines . See also James H. Charles worth, Jesus Within Judaism .

    At this time there was a wise man who was called Jesus. And his conduct was good, and he was known to be virtuous. And many people from among the Jews and the other nations became his disciples. Pilate condemned him to be crucified and to die. And those who had become his disciples did not abandon his discipleship. They reported that he had appeared to them after his crucifixion and that he was alive; accordingly, he was perhaps the Messiah

    The only usually undisputed allusion to Jesus in Josephus is actually only a passing reference in the context of the trial of James. James is identified, not as James son of ???? as one would normally expect but as brother of Jesus.

    1 John 3:21-24

    21 Dear friends, if our hearts do not condemn us, we have confidence before God, 22 and receive from him anything we ask, because we obey his commands and do what pleases him. 23 And this is his command: to believe in the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us. 24 Those who obey his commands live in him and he in them. [NIV]

    1 John 4:4 . . . 6

    4 But you, my children, are of God's family, and you have the mastery over these false prophets, because he who inspires you is greater than he who inspires the godless world . . .. 6 But we belong to God, and a man who knows God listens to us, while he who does not belong to God refuses us a hearing. That is how we distinguish the spirit of truth from the spirit of error. [NEB]

    1 John 4:12

    Though God has never been seen by any man, God himself dwells in us if we love one another. [NEB]

    Trinitarians would explain this to themselves as evidence that God had indeed been seen by at least one man, Jesus, UNLESS! Jesus IS God.

    1 John 4:14-15 / (5:1)

    14 And we have beheld and bear witness that the Father has sent the Son to be the Savior of the world. 15 Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he in God. [NASB]

    By Trinity standards this would HAVE to mean that there is no Trinity because MAN (whom ever would meet these requirements) would make up the 4 th person.

    God Son Holy Spirit and Man. So we would have a Quad This is no more laughable then the later, for those who think that was a stupid example.

    1 John 5:9-11

    9 Do we not accept human testimony? The testimony of God is much greater: it is the testimony God has given on his own Son's behalf. 10 Whoever believes in the Son of God possesses that testimony within his heart. Whoever does not believe God has made God a liar by refusing to believe in the testimony he has given on his own Son's behalf. 11 The testimony is this: God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. [NAB]

    The Son is known only by revelation from God, there has as yet been no witness to the Son by the Son himself

    (5:13) that his letter is addressed to those who "believe in the name of the Son of God." As noted earlier (#189), believing in the "name" of a deity is to draw on his power.

    1 John 5:14-15

    14 We can approach God with confidence for this reason: if we make requests which accord with his will he listens to us; 15 and if we know that our requests are heard, we know also that the things we ask for are ours. [NEB]

    2 John 4-6

    4 It has given me great joy to find some of your children walking in the truth, just as the Father commanded us. 5 And now, dear lady, I am not writing you a new command but one we have had from the beginning. I ask that we love one another. 6 And this is love: that we walk in obedience to his commands. As you have heard from the beginning, his command is that you walk in love. [NIV]

    This passage makes it unmistakably clear that the command to love has come not from Jesus, but from the Father.

    Romans 8:19-23

    19 For the created universe waits with eager expectation for Gods sons [i.e., the faithful believers] to be revealed [i.e., revealed for all the world to see] . . . [NEB]

    21 the universe itself will be freed from the shackles of mortality and enter upon the liberty and splendour of the children of God . . ..

    22 Up to the present, the whole universe groans in all its parts as if in the pangs of childbirth . . ..

    23 Not only so, but even we, to whom the Spirit is given as first fruits of the harvest to come, are groaning inwardly while we wait for God to make us his sons and set our whole body free.

    Romans 8:24-25

    24 For in this hope we were saved. But hope that is seen is not hope at all; for who hopes for what he already sees? 25 But if we hope for something we do not see, we await it with patience. [NIV/RSV]

    plum

  • LittleToe
    LittleToe

    Cutting to the chase, without flinging texts around (which we all do so well ), what are you stating, Plum?

    That Jesus has been given jurisdiction over the physical creation, and as such is worthy of worship from us in equal measure to the Father?

    I've just got to ask how Paul's comments about judging angels falls into that one.

    Other than that, I think I can see where you are coming from, and will fight for your right to express it

  • Jeremiah Lee
    Jeremiah Lee

    Christ was/is a priest

    There are no "level of degrees" in worship given to the Father and Son here. They are honored as equals. See Rev20: 6 "...but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." What does a priest do? Serve -'latreuo', i.e. service only allowable to God.

    OR by simply reading the passage rather then PARTICULAR words in it, it can mean simply that authority was given to Christ over the earth (complete authority) for a time. Which would only be fair since he did suffer quite a bit of pain and humiliation while on earth being sacrificed and maybe would like a period of time all to himself to even a few scores per sa. Perfectly understandable. Normally Vengeance is mine sayth the Lord Which means he can do with it what ever he wants. He can give it to his son for a while if he wants to and we have no authority to dispute it.

    God the Father gives Christ complete authority (over the earth/our universe, small as it may be) for certain purposes and when he is finished Christ hands it back.

    About that time would be a good time for some more Books to be either revealed or written to continue the saga. Because that would cover Revelations.

    Those words are highlighted in order to show what is KEY in the passage. Note again the context: ....priests OF Christ. This is what you call a "partitive genitive" which denotes relation to the subject. The people are priests for Christ, they serve Christ. That is what is to be emphasized.

    There are no "level of degrees" in worship given to the Father and Son here.

    Different meanings can translate simply by highlighting different words/phrases in most scriptures. Depending on what ones OBJECTIVE is.

    You didn't address the context. It is the fact that, within the context, Christ is distinguished WITH THE FATHER from EVERY CREATURE. Also note the PRESENCE of the articles in the GREEK. This denotes THE honor etc...as I demonstrated from Jn5:18 etc...in my previous post.

    when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.(ON EARTH).. vs28.... When He has done this, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECTto Him who put everything under him

    To Him who put everything under him

    SO what exactly IS everything?

    Everything pertinent to US?

    Everything pertinent to God?

    We dont know about everything that is with in our reach much less everything that goes beyond that.

    By only highlighting, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECT and focusing on that is to suggest there was no prior arrangement. As though it was that way throughout all infinity right up until THAT VERSE.

    The time of occurence is beside the point. It is the structure of the context. Once again note the "made subject"...note the fact that in order for Christ to be "subjected" to the Father, he would have to have been equal at one time. See Heb5:8. All of creation is obedient to Father God. Why then did Jesus, whom according to you is a creature, have to "learn" obediencs during His stint in the incarnated state if he already "knew" as Michael (or whoever) prior?

    1 John 5:9-11

    9 Do we not accept human testimony? The testimony of God is much greater: it is the testimony God has given on his own Son's behalf. 10 Whoever believes in the Son of God possesses that testimony within his heart. Whoever does not believe God has made God a liar by refusing to believe in the testimony he has given on his own Son's behalf. 11 The testimony is this: God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. [NAB]

    The Son is known only by revelation from God, there has as yet been no witness to the Son by the Son himself

    The scriptures equally state that no one can know the Father nor come to Him except by Christ.

    From what I've gathered YHWH isn't used anywhere in the New Testament. If they aren't using the "Word", why wouldn't they say His Name is "the Word of God"? Those that understand what the "Word of God" is would understand what is being referred.

    You are correct. YHWH is not used in the NT. However, if you look at the REFERENCE to the verse cited in Hebrews, you will note that the Greek word 'kyrios' is a representation (here, not in every NT occurance) of YHWH in this verse. So when Paul says "in the beginning O Lord" he is quotign directly from the Psalm that stated "in the beginning O YHWH".....

    Do you believe the "Word of God" is the Scriptures? Why didn't they say His Name is "the Scriptures"? And on that subject, do you really believe that 'all things came into existence" through the Bible? All things came into existence "whether the things in heaven or the things on earth" for and through the Bible?

    I believe that it is another name for Christ, such as "Wonderful" etc... The scriptures testify of christ, not the other way around. It is Christ you must come to "you search the scriptures in vain thinking that by THEM you possess eternal life. Yet you refuse to come to ME."....

    God bless you in the highest, ><>

    Jeremiah Lee

    Edited by - Jeremiah Lee on 9 August 2002 9:46:21

  • Jeremiah Lee
    Jeremiah Lee

    ewww! My html turned out cruddy..

  • pomegranate
    pomegranate

    What exactly did Father give the Son?

    ALL power, ALL authority, ALL everything in heaven and on earth. He was also given LIFE within himself as the Father has. (He is a SOURCE of life, a Father.)

    Now, if I was to CRUDELY equate this with a secular corporation what would that mean?

    The President (Father) says to the Vice President (Son):

    Today, in regards to this company we have made together, I give you ALL authority, ALL power, ALL EVERYTHING in full relation to EVERYTHING we have made. IT IS ALL YOURS. The ONLY thing is, YOU are NOT above me.

    If a President said that to the Vice President, what would that make the Vice President?

    Another President.

    Father = Dormant Almighty
    Son = Acting Almighty (by Divine permission)

    That's what I believe.

  • plmkrzy
    plmkrzy
    note the fact that in order for Christ to be "subjected" to the Father, he would have to have been equal at one time.

    "he would have to have been equal at one time." WHY?

    Your usage of the word "Fact" is only relivant in it's original text. After that it is no longer fact but your opinion.

    You have highlighted what YOU BELIEVE to be KEY text.

    And I have to dissagree with you in bold highlights that the time and place and refference to is besides the point. It IS the point. The whole point. OTHERWISE it is only consistant with putting God back in the box man created for him.

    plum

    LittleToe _____________I'll BRB

    Edited by - plmkrzy on 9 August 2002 17:35:18

  • plmkrzy
    plmkrzy
    Now, if I was to CRUDELY equate this with a secular corporation what would that mean?

    You may

    I personally like the way you chose to sum it up. It does make sense. IMO..OOPS.. IMHO

  • siegswife
    siegswife

    I think it's obvious that the designation 'Word' indicates subjection in the 'beginning'.

    A word is defined by the speaker. If the speaker is someone who's true to their word, then their word is equal to their intent, but the intent is the reality.

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