Dear DF'd.... peace to you!
You said:
1. Peter said if someone twists around Paul's Letters, that person will be destroyed. (If Paul's Letters were not Inspired by God's Spirit, then why this stern warning?)
No, dear one, but according to the original GREEK, Peter said:
"... which the non-learners and unsteady are distorting as also the leftover scriptures toward the own of them destruction."
What does that mean? That just like some were distorting the scriptures, they were distorting some (f not all) of what Paul wrote. How does one AVOID this? By heeding the words at John 5:39, 40. Why? Because Paul, who wrote "remove the wicked man," is also the same one that wrote regarding eating foods sacrificed to idols NOT to worry about it, nor judge the man who does. Yet, "Jezebel" was condemned by my Lord for doing such a thing. How do you know who meant what? By heeding the words at John 5:39, 40... and beyond that, letting LOVE prevail, for "against such thing... there is no law."
2. Peter said that people were twisting Paul's Letters, just like they did with the OTHER SCRIPTURES, which, I assume, means Peter was saying that Paul's Letters were also Inspired Scriptures.
First, please note that neither the word "other" or "rest of" (NWT) is in the original Greek. Note also that the word "leftover" IS... denoting that SOME of the scriptures were MISSING (Book of Enoch, Book of Wars, and others). Indeed, why is not the Gospel written by Thomas included in the Bible canon and considered "scripture"? Did not Thomas have the same spirit? What about Barnabas' letter(s)? What about the FIRST letter to the Corinthian congregation that Paul wrote (those in the Bible are his second and third...); if his writings were "inspired", why are they not all there?
Dear DF'd, Peter said that Paul wrote pursuant to the wisdom given him, and in some instances I and many others do, too. For it is true, that such wisdom is a "gift" of the spirit. However, again, Paul himself said when he was speaking according to the spirit, which was briefly, and when he was not. Paul UNDERSTOOD when he knew something according to the spirit; however, Paul did not SAY, "And JAH/Christ said to me," or "I have spoken just as I heard/was told," etc.
Yes, there is a difference. Was Paul ever inspired? Most certainly. Do we know if he wrote what he was inspired to say? Not definitively. But I am certain that when he spoke to the others, there were times when he SAID to them that holy spirit was directing him to speak.
(NOTE: I have asked my Lord further on what Peter meant, as even Peter "failed" the spirit on occasion, yes, so how can I put my "trust" in him? The reply of my Lord is that Peter is correct but that he is not referring to ALL of Paul's letters, but to those written during the time that Peter himself wrote (60-64 CE). For Peter was included among those who "corrected" Paul in his error way back when he wrote to the Corinthians, helping Paul to understand that LOVE, by means of forgiveness, mercy and releasing... and NOT judgement and condemnation... were the Law's "fulfillment.." It was later that Paul, a former Pharisee, began to understand this, and it is evidenced in his writings when this took place. This is as I have 'heard' it from my Lord, the Son of God, JAHESHUA MISCHAJAH, and have been permitted to give to you. I, myself, SJ, spoke it to you, just as I heard it.)
I bid you peace, DF'd, to time indefinite...
Your servant and a slave of Christ,
SJ
