Pomegranate,
Well Mr. Teacher of the Law why don't you reprove me? Show me where I am mistaken and need adjusting.
If you look at the greek, the word law is used in a couple of different ways in the NT. Without the definite article ("the" or "ho" in greek) preceding the word law "no'mos", law in general is usually being referred to. If the definite article is used "ho no'mos", then the Mosaic law or some specific law is being referenced. Some bible translations will capitalize the word "Law" when it is used this way. In either case the context of the scripture is important. You cannot just use the word "law" to mean whatever you want to fit your theory. Context is the key.
I had to research this topic when I was putting apostate material in my public talk. The reference is from a Watchtower publication which is quoting a bible translation guide, so I'm not sure if you will accept it, but it seems to make sense to me. Here is the source from the NWT footnote at Romans 3:19: The BibleTranslator, Vol. 1, January 1950, published by The United Bible Societies, London, p. 165, J. Harold Greenlee:
The word law requires individual attention. The [Greek] article indicates a particular law, or the Mosaic law; without the article, reference may be to law as a principle.
There is also another reference to this in Commentary on James, another WT publication. Page 162 has this paragraph:
speaks against law and judges lawJames states that such unjust, harsh and unkind criticism of ones Christian brother amounts to a speaking against law and a judging of it. Earlier in his letter James refers to the kingly law of loving ones neighbor and of the law of a free people. (Jas. 2:8, 12) So it appears that, in the section under consideration, James is not referring to the Mosaic law but to Gods law generally as it applied to the Christian congregation. As scholar Lenski points out, the word law in Greek is here anarthrous, that is, without the definite article the, and this lends support to the view that James is not referring specifically to the Mosaic law (the law). It may be noted, however, that the kingly law of loving ones neighbor was also implicit in the Law covenant. Jesus in fact said that the whole Law (given through Moses to Israel) rested on but two commandments, love of God and love of ones neighbor. (Compare Leviticus 19:18; Matthew 22:37-40; Romans 13:8-10.) Similarly, the new commandment given by Jesus also places its emphasis on such love. (John 13:34; 15:12) All the inspired Christian writings maintain that emphasis.
(Note: I had to use WT material for this research so I wouldn't get in trouble with the elders. I can't remember if I found anything from outside sources and just didn't use them since I found the WT references after a lot of scouring.)
If you could find a way to show that your theory is falsifiable, then it might be worth something.It means that there is no sense in me continuing the discussion with you because your theory is not falsifiable. That is, there is no way to disprove it. A theory that is not falsifiable is worthless. No matter what I say, you can just make up and ad hoc answer to it without any evidence. Tell me, is there any way to show that your theory is incorrect? rem
What the heck is that supposed to mean?
Edited by - rem on 31 October 2002 18:21:15