John 20: 28 in the NWT Calls Jesus God

by Sea Breeze 36 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Sea Breeze
    Sea Breeze
    In answer Thomas said to him: “My Lord and my God! - John 20: 28 NWT

    Why don't Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus is God when he is called that in their own bible?

    Several early Church Fathers referred to and cited John 20:28, particularly in discussions about the divinity of Christ and the importance of faith in the resurrection.

    Here are some examples:

    Ignatius of Antioch (c. 30-107 AD): In his letter to the Smyrnaeans, Ignatius mentions Thomas' exclamation, "My Lord, and my God" after seeing Jesus post-resurrection, as evidence of Jesus' physical resurrection and his deity. The Catholic Cross Reference reports that Ignatius used this verse.

    Cyprian of Carthage (c. 210-258 AD): Cyprian, in his work Three Books of Testimonies Against the Jews, uses John 20:28, among other scriptures, to argue for the divinity of Christ.

    Novatian (c. 200-258 AD): In his Treatise Concerning the Trinity, Novatian cites Thomas' declaration as support for the belief that Jesus is both Lord and God.

    Athanasius of Alexandria (c. 298-373 AD): Athanasius references Thomas' words in his Letter to Epictetus to emphasize that even those who initially denied Christ's divinity should now confess that the crucified Jesus is indeed God.

    Cyril of Alexandria (c. 376-444 AD): Cyril provides extensive commentary on John 20:28, highlighting its significance for understanding Christ's divine nature. He states that confessing Jesus as "My Lord and my God" affirms his inherent divine authority and nature as God.

    These examples demonstrate that the early Church leaders recognized the importance of Thomas' statement in John 20:28 as a declaration of Jesus' divinity.

  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat

    And what does the author of the gospel of John himself say?

    John 20:31 But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name.

  • Sea Breeze
    Sea Breeze
    @SlimBoyFat

    The fact that John used both the term: "Son of God" and "God" in the same book to refer to Jesus tells us that both are referring to Jesus' deity. But it is not only John, but Jesus' enemies as well understood the term "Son of God" to be a reference of his deity.

    During His trial, the High Priest demanded of Jesus, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God” (Matthew 26:63). “‘Yes, it is as you say,’ Jesus replied. ‘But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven’” (Matthew 26:64).

    The Jewish leaders responded by accusing Jesus of blasphemy (Matthew 26:65-66). Later, before Pontius Pilate, “The Jews insisted, ‘We have a law, and according to that law He must die, because He claimed to be the Son of God’” (John 19:7). Why would His claiming to be the Son of God be considered blasphemy and be worthy of a death sentence? The Jewish leaders understood exactly what Jesus meant by the phrase “Son of God.”

    To be the Son of God is to be of the same nature as God. The Son of God is “of God.” The claim to be of the same nature as God—to in fact be God—was blasphemy to the Jewish leaders; therefore, they demanded Jesus’ death, in keeping with Leviticus 24:15. Hebrews 1:3 expresses this very clearly, “The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of His being.”

    What is it about Jesus being God that bothered so many people then as it does now?

  • Halcon
    Halcon
    SB-To be the Son of God is to be of the same nature as God. The Son of God is “of God.” The claim to be of the same nature as God—to in fact be God—was blasphemy to the Jewish leaders; therefore, they demanded Jesus’ death, in keeping with Leviticus 24:15. Hebrews 1:3 expresses this very clearly, “The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of His being.” What is it about Jesus being God that bothered so many people then as it does now?

    It's possible that the word 'God' conveys someone that is ultimate and above all else. For that title to belong to three separate persons seems to change the meaning of the word God at first.

    The Bible clearly describes the Father (God the Father) as having attributes that God the Son doesn't have, because they are two separate beings although both retaining the title of God.

    While Thomas acknowledged Jesus as being God, he didn't imply that the Son was the same person as the Father. I believe that it is saying the Son is the same person as the Father that may 'upset' people today.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    The Gospel of John, particularly chapter 20, verse 28, presents one of the most significant affirmations of Jesus’ identity in the New Testament. After witnessing the resurrected Jesus, the apostle Thomas declares, "My Lord and my God!". For Trinitarians, this verse is a cornerstone of Christology, explicitly affirming Jesus’ deity as part of the Triune Godhead. However, Jehovah’s Witnesses, who adhere to a non-Trinitarian theology, offer alternative interpretations, suggesting Thomas’s words were an exclamation, addressed to the Father, or referred to Jesus as a lesser "god."

    Grammatical and Linguistic Analysis

    The Greek text of John 20:28 reads: "πεκρίθη Θωμς κα επεν ατ· κύριός μου κα θεός μου" ("Thomas answered and said to him, ‘My Lord and my God!’"). The phrase πεν ατ" ("he said to him") unequivocally indicates that Thomas is addressing Jesus directly. In Koine Greek, the nominative forms " κύριός μου" and " θεός μου" serve as vocatives, a common practice for direct address, especially in contexts of reverence or worship, as noted in scholarly grammars. The definite article "" before "θεός" (God) denotes specificity, aligning with references to the one true God, not a lesser deity. The possessive pronoun "μου" ("my") underscores Thomas’s personal acknowledgment of Jesus as his Lord and God. The Exegetical Commentary on the Original Languages describes this as the "climax of Messianic faith," emphasizing Jesus’ divine nature over a mere exclamation.

    Cultural and Historical Context

    In first-century Jewish culture, the sanctity of God’s name was paramount. The third commandment (Exodus 20:7) forbids taking the Lord’s name in vain, and blasphemy was a capital offense (Leviticus 24:16). As a devout Jew, Thomas would not have used "my God" flippantly, as it risked severe religious consequences. His declaration, therefore, must be understood as a deliberate confession of faith. Jesus’ response, commending Thomas’s belief (John 20:29), without any rebuke, contrasts sharply with instances where angels redirect worship to God, affirming the correctness of Thomas’s address.

    Biblical Consistency and Theological Significance

    The phrase "my God" appears over 100 times in the Bible, consistently referring to YHWH, the God of Israel (e.g., Psalm 35:23, Revelation 4:11). In John 20:28, Thomas applies this title to Jesus, aligning with the high Christology of John’s Gospel, which opens with "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1). This confession fulfills the Gospel’s purpose: "that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name" (John 20:31). The title "Son of God" in John carries divine connotations, as evidenced by John 5:18, where Jesus’ claim to be God’s Son is interpreted as equality with God.

    Old Testament Parallels

    Thomas’s exclamation mirrors Psalm 35:23, where the psalmist addresses God as "my God and my Lord" (Hebrew: אֱלֹהַי וַאדֹנָי, Elohai va’Adonai; Septuagint: θεός μου κα κύριός μου). The Aramaic Peshitta rendering of John 20:28, Mari w-Alahi ("My Lord and my God"), reflects a similar structure, suggesting Thomas used language reserved for YHWH. In first-century Palestine, where Aramaic was common, Thomas likely said something like Marei w-Elohai, a phrase used exclusively for God in Jewish devotion, indicating worship of Jesus as divine.

    Refuting Jehovah’s Witnesses’ Interpretations

    Jehovah’s Witnesses propose several interpretations of John 20:28, each of which is addressed below:

    Exclamation of Surprise

    Jehovah’s Witnesses suggest Thomas’s words were an emotional outburst, akin to "Oh my God!". However, the Greek "επεν ατ" clearly denotes direct address to Jesus. In Jewish culture, casual use of God’s name was unthinkable, as it risked blasphemy. Jesus’ commendation of Thomas’s belief (John 20:29) further indicates that the declaration was a correct confession, not a spontaneous outburst.

    Addressing Both Jesus and the Father

    Another claim is that Thomas addressed Jesus as "my Lord" and the Father as "my God." The singular pronoun τ" ("to him") refers solely to Jesus, and the context—Thomas responding to Jesus’ wounds—focuses entirely on Jesus. There is no textual basis for splitting the address between two persons.

    Jesus as a Lesser "God"

    Jehovah’s Witnesses argue that Thomas called Jesus "a god," not the Almighty God, citing their translation of John 1:1 ("the Word was a god"). However, " θεός" in John 20:28, with the definite article, typically denotes the one true God. In Jewish monotheism, "my God" implies worship of YHWH, not a lesser deity. Calling another being "my God" would violate the first commandment (Exodus 20:3), making this interpretation untenable for a Jew like Thomas.

    Comparison to Angels

    Some liken Thomas’s address to instances where angels are called "God" as God’s representatives (e.g., Genesis 18, Exodus 3). In such cases, the angel speaks for God, and the address is ultimately to God. In John 20:28, Thomas directly addresses Jesus after witnessing his resurrection, with no indication of speaking through Jesus to the Father. Jesus’ acceptance of the title, unlike angels who redirect worship (Revelation 19:10), confirms its appropriateness.

    Jesus’ Reference to "My God"

    Jehovah’s Witnesses point to John 20:17, where Jesus says, "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God," arguing that Jesus cannot be God if he has a God. Trinitarian theology explains that in his human nature, Jesus relates to the Father as his God (Philippians 2:6-8), while in his divine nature, he is co-equal with the Father (John 10:30). This dual nature allows Jesus to call the Father "my God" without negating his deity.

    Early Christian Interpretation

    Early Church Fathers consistently viewed John 20:28 as affirming Jesus’ deity. Cyprian (210–258 AD) cited it as proof that "Christ is God" in his Three Books of Testimonies Against the Jews. Augustine wrote, "Thomas saw and touched the man, and acknowledged the God whom he neither saw nor touched." These pre-Nicene interpretations underscore the early Church’s belief in Jesus’ deity, countering claims that Trinitarianism is a later development.

    Alternative Terms and Their Absence

    If the apostles intended to avoid equating Jesus with YHWH, alternative Greek terms were available. For "lord," terms like δεσπότης (master) or ρχων (ruler) could have been used instead of κύριος, which often translates YHWH in the Septuagint. For "god," terms like θεος (divine) or μίθεος (demigod) could indicate lesser divinity, but θεός with the definite article suggests the one true God. The deliberate use of κύριός and θεός supports the Trinitarian view.

    “But John says elsewhere that Jesus is not God, but only his Son!”

    The objection that John 20:31 negates the full deity of Christ, or renders the Trinitarian reading of Thomas’s confession in John 20:28 invalid, reflects a fundamental misunderstanding of both Johannine Christology and classical Christian theology. The assertion that “Son of God” is somehow antithetical to “God,” or that Jesus’ confession as “Son” necessarily excludes him from full deity, cannot be maintained in light of the linguistic, historical, and theological context of John’s Gospel.

    First, the very logic that “Son of God” must mean “not God” ignores the consistent biblical use of filial language to indicate shared essence, not merely subordination or created status. In the ancient Near Eastern and specifically Jewish milieu, “sonship” can and does signify equality of nature—precisely why, as John 5:18 records, the Jewish interlocutors sought to kill Jesus “because he was calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.” John’s Gospel repeatedly affirms that the Son’s relationship with the Father is not one of mere emissary or creature, but of consubstantiality: “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30), and “He who has seen me has seen the Father” (John 14:9).

    The supposed opposition between John 20:28 and 20:31 evaporates upon inspection. The Evangelist’s purpose statement in John 20:31—“that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God”—functions not as a denial of Christ’s deity, but as its programmatic assertion, in harmony with the high Christology inaugurated in the Prologue: “the Word was God” (John 1:1), and “the Word became flesh” (1:14). The title “Son of God,” when applied to Christ in Johannine usage, carries with it the full weight of deity, as made clear by the context of John’s narrative and the reaction of his audience (cf. John 19:7).

    Halcon’s attempt to resolve the issue by proposing that “God” should be reserved for “someone that is ultimate and above all else” and thus that “three separate persons” would “change the meaning of the word God” is a non sequitur rooted in a philosophical unawareness of the doctrine of divine simplicity and the classical distinction between “person” (hypostasis) and “nature” (ousia) as articulated in Nicene and post-Nicene theology. The Catholic doctrine does not posit three Gods, but one divine essence subsisting wholly and undividedly in three Persons. Each Person fully possesses the one divine essence, so that the attribution of “God” to the Son does not multiply gods, nor does it fragment the divine unity. To insist that the term “God” can only ever mean a single “person” (in the modern, individualistic sense) is to import a post-biblical, even post-Trinitarian, conceptual scheme foreign to both the scriptural text and patristic exegesis.

    The argument that John 20:17—where Jesus, speaking as the incarnate Son, refers to the Father as “my God”—somehow negates the confession of Thomas is a well-known confusion, long refuted by the Church Fathers. In his human nature, Christ prays to the Father and relates to him as God; in his divine nature, he is of one essence with the Father and worthy of the same worship and adoration, as is evident in the very structure of Thomas’s acclamation: “My Lord and my God!” This confession directly addresses Jesus, as the grammar of the Greek makes explicitπεν ατ). The attempt to argue that Thomas is simply offering an exclamation, or that he is speaking to the Father, is both grammatically and contextually unsustainable and has no patristic support outside anti-Trinitarian or rationalist circles.

    Moreover, the notion that “the Bible clearly describes the Father (God the Father) as having attributes that God the Son doesn’t have, because they are two separate beings although both retaining the title of God,” is a confusion of person and nature. Catholic theology is precise: the distinctions between the persons of the Trinity lie not in their deity or in possession of divine attributes, but in their relations of origin—the Father is unbegotten, the Son is eternally begotten, and the Spirit proceeds from the Father (and, in Western theology, from the Son). What the Father is, the Son is, save only the property of paternity; what the Son is, the Father is, save only filiation. Any apparent differences in scriptural narrative (such as the Son praying to the Father) arise from the incarnational economy, not from ontological inequality.

    The reference to “three separate beings” further betrays a failure to appreciate the Catholic (and patristic) understanding of hypostatic distinction without ontological division. The Church teaches, in line with the Fathers and Councils, that the divine persons are distinct but not separate; they are not three gods, nor three beings, but one God in three persons. To assert otherwise is to regress into tritheism or Unitarianism, neither of which finds any real warrant in the New Testament or in the tradition of the Church.

    Finally, the application of “my Lord and my God” to Jesus is of the highest theological significance. This phrase echoes Psalm 35:23 and applies the very terms used of Yahweh in the Old Testament to Jesus in his risen glory. The structure of the Gospel of John, as well as the immediate context of Jesus’ commendation of Thomas’s faith, precludes any interpretation other than a direct confession of the deity of Christ. The testimony of the early Church, from Ignatius of Antioch to Augustine, stands with unwavering unanimity: John 20:28 is the climactic acknowledgment of Christ’s full deity, a truth confessed in the very heart of the Christian liturgy and doctrine.

    In summary, the attempted Arian reduction of the Johannine witness does violence both to the text and to its reception in Christian history. To be the Son of God, in the sense intended by John, is to be “of one being with the Father.” The confession of Thomas, recognized and affirmed by Jesus himself, is not a mistaken or ambiguous address, but the Spirit-inspired proclamation that the crucified and risen Jesus is, in the fullest sense, “My Lord and my God.” Any exegesis that fails to acknowledge this does not so much interpret John’s Gospel as mutilate its testimony.

    Theological Implications

    Thomas’s confession is the climactic moment of John’s Gospel, echoing the prologue’s declaration that "the Word was God" (John 1:1). It aligns with John’s purpose to demonstrate that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, with divine authority to grant eternal life (John 20:31, John 10:28). The early Christian practice of worshipping Jesus, as noted by Pliny the Younger in 112 AD, further supports this interpretation.

    Conclusion

    The Trinitarian interpretation of John 20:28 is robustly supported by grammatical, cultural, biblical, and historical evidence. Thomas’s declaration, "My Lord and my God," directly addresses Jesus, acknowledging his divine nature. Jehovah’s Witnesses’ alternative interpretations—exclamation, dual address, lesser god, or angelic comparison—fail to account for the text’s clarity, Jewish monotheism, and Jesus’ acceptance of the titles. Supported by early Christian testimony, John 20:28 stands as a powerful affirmation of Jesus’ deity within the framework of Trinitarian theology.

  • Sea Breeze
    Sea Breeze

    @Halcon

    The belief that Jesus and God are the same person with a different essence is called Modalism. This view holds that God is one being who manifests himself in different modes or forms, one of which is Jesus Christ. It contrasts with the Trinitarian view, which posits that God exists eternally as three distinct persons (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) in one divine being. Here are some reasons why this should be rejected:

    1. Contradiction with Scripture:

    Interactions between Persons: The Bible depicts distinct interactions between the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. For example, Jesus prays to the Father, the Father sends the Son, and the Holy Spirit descends upon Jesus at his baptism. Modalism struggles to explain these passages convincingly, as it would imply God is essentially interacting with different aspects of himself, which is seen as illogical and contrary to the relational nature of God presented in scripture.

    Simultaneous Presence: Events like Jesus' baptism (Matthew 3:16-17) portray all three "modes" simultaneously present, contradicting the modalist idea of sequential manifestation.

    Personhood of the Holy Spirit: Scripture attributes personal characteristics like will, emotions, and mind to the Holy Spirit, suggesting a distinct personhood rather than just a divine force or mode.

    2. Undermining Key Christian Doctrines:

    The Incarnation: Modalism blurs the distinction between Father and Son, diminishing the unique significance of the Son's incarnation and redemptive work. The core belief is that the Son of God, a distinct person, took on human nature to redeem humanity, which Modalism undermines by suggesting the Son is merely a mode.

    The Atonement: If the Father and Son are the same person, then the concept of God sending his Son to die for humanity loses its meaning. The sacrifice becomes God essentially sacrificing himself to himself, which contradicts the relational aspect of the atonement in orthodox Christianity.

    Patripassianism: An implication of Modalism is that the Father suffers, or Patripassianism. This is because Modalism doesn't differentiate between the Father and the Son, suggesting the Father suffered on the cross, which contradicts the orthodox belief that only the Son suffered in his humanity.

    3. Historical Rejection:

    Modalism was condemned as a heresy by early church councils (with a near unanimous vote from pastors from diverse locations throughout the empire) like the Council of Nicaea (325 AD), which affirmed the Trinitarian doctrine of God as one essence in three distinct persons. This rejection highlights the historical consensus within Christianity against modalism.

    Any attempt to characterize the nature of Jesus must include the bible's description of BOTH the nature of man AND the nature of God. This chart and scripture references illuminate these distinctions and characteristics :




  • Halcon
    Halcon
    Catholic theology is precise: the distinctions between the persons of the Trinity lie not in their deity or in possession of divine attributes, but in their relations of origin—the Father is unbegotten, the Son is eternally begotten, and the Spirit proceeds from the Father (and, in Western theology, from the Son). What the Father is, the Son is, save only the property of paternity; what the Son is, the Father is, save only filiation.

    Therefore they are two separate persons.

    The Church teaches, in line with the Fathers and Councils, that the divine persons are distinct but not separate; they are not three gods, nor three beings, but one God in three persons.

    One title, God, shared by 3 persons.

  • Halcon
    Halcon
    SB-The belief that Jesus and God are the same person with a different essence is called Modalism.

    This is not what I wrote.

    I wrote that God the Father is separate from God the Son.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345
    @Halcon

    When we say “the distinctions between the persons of the Trinity lie not in their deity or in the possession of divine attributes, but in their relations of origin,” we are affirming that what differentiates the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit is not a division in their being, essence, or attributes, but the way each relates to the others within the single, indivisible divine substance. The Father is unbegotten, the source; the Son is eternally begotten of the Father; the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father (and, in Western theology, from the Son as well). These are called “relations of origin,” or more technically, processiones personales—personal processions. The persons are not distinguished by “what” they are (for each is wholly and equally God), but by “how” they are God: by their mutual relations.

    It is crucial here not to fall into the error of thinking that “person” in the Trinity means what “person” means in modern everyday speech—namely, an individual center of consciousness or a separate being. In classical theology, a divine “person” is a distinct subsistence within the one, undivided divine essence. There are not three centers of consciousness or three beings, but rather three “who’s” within one “what.” The persons are not “separate,” as though they were individuals standing apart from one another, but “distinct” by relation alone: the Father is not the Son, nor is either the Holy Spirit, but each fully is the one God.

    The word “God,” therefore, is not merely a “title” that three happen to share, as three distinct men might each be called “doctor” or “teacher.” Rather, the divine essence is numerically one—there is only one infinite, undivided reality that is God, and each of the persons is that one reality, not by participation or sharing, but by being wholly identical with the divine essence. What is proper to the Father, as Father, is to be the origin; what is proper to the Son is to be begotten; what is proper to the Spirit is to proceed. But the divinity, the very “Godness” of each, is one and the same.

    So when the Church says, “they are not three gods, nor three beings, but one God in three persons,” it is not suggesting that “God” is a mere role or external designation. Rather, it affirms the mystery that within the one divine being, there are three eternal relations, each fully subsisting, each wholly God, yet not three gods but one. The unity is not a community of separate entities, but the unity of essence in which real distinctions of relation remain.

    This doctrine is certainly mysterious—indeed, it is the central mystery of Christian faith and reason, and its articulation is careful to avoid both the error of “tritheism” (three gods) and of “modalism” (one person in three modes). The Catholic theological tradition maintains, as you quoted, “what the Father is, the Son is, save only the property of paternity; what the Son is, the Father is, save only filiation.” This is not about “titles” but about eternal realities within the life of the one God.

    In short, the divine persons are truly distinct, not separate; and the name “God” refers not to a mere title, but to the very one, infinite, indivisible reality each person wholly is. This is the heart of the Catholic confession of the Trinity, carefully developed and safeguarded against both rationalistic misunderstandings and modalistic reductions, and it stands as the result of the Church’s centuries-long meditation on the mystery of God revealed in Christ.

  • Sea Breeze
    Sea Breeze
    @Halcon: two separate beings although both retaining the title of God.

    This contradicts the Hebrew Shema in Duet. 6: 4

    Deu 6:4 Hear,H8085 O Israel:H3478 The LORDH3068 our GodH430 is oneH259 LORD:H3068

    H430

    אֱלֹהִים

    'ĕlôhı̂ym

    el-o-heem'

    Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God

    In other words, the Gods are one God.


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