Disillusioned JW
scholar, why do you think the book of Daniel says "seal up the book" of Daniel? If you think the book was sealed, when do you think it became unsealed? Do you think it was unsealed in the 2nd century B.C.E.? Do you think it was sealed centuries earlier than the 2nd century B.C.E.? In contrast, why do you think the book of Revelation says "do not seal up" the book of Revelation? What are your reasons?
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The reason for sealing up the book of Daniel was simply to show that it would only be understood or revealed at a much later time as it was beyond human understanding onlt to be revealed to the 'holy ones'-'those having insight' Dan. 12:3. Such a future time of revelation would be as Dan 12:1 when Michael would stand up was from 1914 CE.
Daniel from its time of composition in the 6th century BCE remained sealed right through until 1914 CE The reason why Daniel was to remain sealed right up to the appointed time for its disclosure from 1914 CE and that Revelation was not to be sealed during the appointed time- Rev. 22:10 shows a different context in time and purpose. Daniel was written for a future purpose as prophecy Revelation was written for the 'Lord's Day' beginning in 1914 CE and during that time its contents were to be publicised as shown by the Bible Students preaching its content.
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Do you think the references in the two books about "seal up" or "do not seal up" (as the case may be) provide clues as when the two books were written?
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Most definitely. In the case of Daniel such a commandment 'to seal up' proves it was a book of prophecy written at the time the dreams and visions were received which are dated historically. Revelation is also a similar apocalyptic genre in the prophecy given at a future specified time of its revealing which has been calculated to be 1914 CE based on the 'Gentile Times' mentioned in Dan.4.
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When do you think chapters 3-14 of the book of 2nd Esdras (the book that is referred to at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/2_Esdras ) were written, and do you think the biblical Ezra wrote them? [Esdras is a Greco-Latin variation of the Hebrew name 'Ezra'.] What are your reasons?
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2 Esdras also known as the 'Apocalypse of Ezra' or '4 Ezra' was written in the last decade of the 1st century CE.so Ezra the Jewish historian could not have written such an apocalypse.
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Why do you believe that Porphyry having been a critic of Christianity invalidates
Porphyry and his criticism of the the Book of Daniel? Why couldn't his criticism of the book of Daniel be correct, despite his criticism of Christianity? Do you believe that the WT's criticism of the Catholic church and of Christendom invalidates the WT and its criticism of the books which Protestants call Apocryphal but which the Roman Catholic Church calls parts of the Bible (such as the books of Tobit, Judith, and Ecclesiasticus [the latter is also called the Book of Sirach])? What are you reasons
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Well at the very least one would question his motive and whether his proofs or thesis stands up to a critical examination. His criticism must be based on facts so what were his facts? Christendom has endorsed other Apocryphal books which have been added to the Bible Canon so that is a matter for such bodies but their inclusion again demands scrutiny and WT has certainly made such a criticism. The contents of such books tells their own story and it is on this basis alone that canonicity is established.
scholar JW