scholar,
Well feel free to inform us of your reasons either in this thread or the thread where you originally said you would deal with it. There is no real urgency, of course, but the information that Alan provided directly contradicts your claim and that of the Proclaimer's book. Alan's information comes directly from John Aquila Brown's "Even-Tide". So I'm not sure what you mean about something else on page 208.
It appears that you are missing something. Carl Jonsson made some statements that turned out to be exactly accurate. The Proclaimer's book made some statements that according to the original sources, appear very inaccurate. I certainly hope you will present what you mean, because as of now, it appears that you are stretching the truth and then feigning ignorance of the actual point in context, to try to support a "connection" that isn't a "connection". Tell me that this isn't what you are doing, because as you have presented it so far, it gives every appearance of dishonesty.
You are damaging your credibility further, the longer you leave us with this as your only argument to date:
Yes, I believe that Jonsson and Franz have made a historical blunder which renders the Jonsson hypothesis as worthless. The fact of the matter is that the claim that John Aquila Brown did not connect the seven times with the Gentile Times is frankly stupid. The Society in its Proclaimers book stated that a connection of these events was made by Brown and is supported by Brown's description on page 208 of Brown's Eventide.
I'm sure you see why this is inadequate and I was afraid for a minute that you were presenting this as your actual argument. I think it is possible to make an argument that the Society in Proclaimer's thought there was a connection, and in some perverse sense, there was a connection in that they were mentioned together so that no one would misunderstand or misinterpret him and accidentally see them as connected. (In other words, Brown connected them only in the sense of saying the 7 (2520) times are not connected with the Gentile (1260) Times.)
Even if you could argue the word connection in some perverse sense that makes it mean the opposite of the author's intention, I still don't see how you can argue your main point. Your main point, you said, was to show that it "renders the Jonsson hypothesis worthless." Everyone can see that Jonsson was much more accurate and his statement does not require the "sleazy and perverse" twisting of the meaning of the author.
How does showing that Jonsson was more accurate than the Proclaimer's book make Jonsson's "hypothesis" worthless?
Gamaliel