As to John 1:1... which, if any, of the available translations most accurately represents what John (the author) actually meant to say??
Any translation that goes beyond this is an interpetation and has bias.
Any translation which says "he can't have meant this because Mathew states this" is even further interpeting one authors statements by virtue of another's.
This is my issue with "all" of the available translations... they all have some form of bias and go well beyond the job of "translating" the work at hand.
Now, as to my issues specific with the NWT:
1. Thier reasoning for substituting "Jehovah" when none of the available "originals" support their claim (that the name was left out by the people doing the copying for various reasons). Primarily becuase this smacks in the face their teaching(s) that the bible as we have it today is "the same as" the original, and also because it smacks in the face the divine authorship and protection...
2. There are other examples of obvious switches to verses that can only serve to support thier specific theology... one that comes to mind is where they insert the word "apostate" in an old testament scripture, (I think it is in proverbs) that clearly is not what the scripture would naturally translate to. Another comes to the reasoniung of the "cross vs stake" argument where they clearly intend to mislead the reader with their proof (an image from an ages old book).
It is their lies and deciept that they use elsewhere that causes me to question the validity of ALL of their "scholarly" works, and this most definitely includes thier "tranlation" of the Bible.
Now, if we were to discuss the history of the bible itself, you can see why there is even more reason to question it's "divine nature", outside of translation biases itself.