Going back to the pre-war rhetoric it seemed to me that even the German and Russian intelligence along with the English and American intelligence AND previous inspectors all agreed that Sadam had left over (and possibly made more) chemical WMD. Proof seemed to be provided about what they *knew* he had at *some point* and it couldn't be accounted for.
It seems obvious now that Sadam did, in fact, destroy it long ago.
My question - Why didn't he just prove it to the inspectors? Why not avoid all of this if he could?