Im well aware that Jesus was also called son of Joseph in the other gospels, that is not being discussed here. What is being discussed is the out of normal matronymic expression applied to a male child, which didn't happen in their culture, and how this expression infers prior knowledge being expected by the reader of Christ's birth story.
one reference will suffice, lord Jesus- devotion to Jesus in earliest Christianity page 319 paragraph 2 - page 322 paragraph 2
i provided you my cited reference. You may ignore if you wish, it seems you like ignoring such when you are incorrect.
Since you are the one who first took a Hebrew expression and compared it to a Greek one, please provide me your citation from an expert showing they are the same expressions being used in Ruth and Mark. If you can do this, I will accept it.
further, please refer to the other thread where I stated any posts by you that lack a reference I will no longer take seriously. It has been shown you own no such works other than a bible and believe you know everything about it because you speak English. Once you find proof the expression in Ruth is the same as the Jewish male connotation of x son of x, pm it to me and I will study it in detail. Until such time, please cease your pseudo intellectual debates.