Maybe it's because they were not resurrected under the covering of Christ's sacrifice.
Because the ransom had not been paid.
But notice the case of Dorcas who died circa 36 A.D. (Acts 9:36-42) And was resurrected by Peter.
She died after the sacrifice. And yet she died again after clearing her debt.
Hebrews 11:35 talks about women receiving their dead by resurrection while others will attain a better resurrection
Thought WTS tries to downplay the first part of this versicle it seems to refer to conventional resurrection more than a restatement of a "Better resurrection" like I have heard JWs explain.
And Lazarus himself is said to have lived well after 33 A.D. by the Insight book.
I think this line of reasoning places a dent on the doctrine of the inheritance of Death by sin.
My question is, Why haven?t they try to explain this? (at least I haven't seen one)
It seems like a leak that must be fixed?
(Possibly the members of the GB browsing for ideas for the next study articles will take note)
Atlas
(Never saw it that way Elder... It was in front of my nose all this time)