Thanks for the replies. I'm still a little confused though.
According to Christian belief, all mankind has benefitted equally since Jesus' death.
I assume that means all, as in, those who were dead before he came as well as all the people yet to be born.
I hope I'm making myself clear here.
If, therefore, those who were dead already have equally benefitted, then it doesn't seem to make any difference if he died in 33 AD or 3000 AD.
If people who were born after his death have enjoyed a better life because of his death then would it not have been better for him to have died in 4000 BC?
So far man has lived for (according to JW theology) just over 6000 years. 4000 were pre Christ and 2000 post. Plus whatever is to come in the future.
Just my way of looking at things. I assume I'm missing something.