Thx, Wonderment for the post. I was reading Acts recently and noted how the "all" in 3:18 certainly does not mean ALL in an absolute sense. There Peter says, "God foretold by the mouths of all the prophets (πάντων τῶν προφητῶν), that his Christ should suffer ..." Of course, some of the prophets never mention the Messiah at all, and only a few of them speak of his suffering.
As for 1 Tim. 2:4, other factors are likely involved. First, that the plural of πᾶς can indeed mean "all sorts of" is clear from entry number 5 for that word in the 2nd revision by Danker of the Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich NT Greek lexicon (BDAG, p. 784). There are 25 NT examples listed under that definition. 1 Tim. 2:4 is not present but then it is unlikely that the lexicographers meant the entry to be exhaustive. Second, it is likely that Fred Franz was influenced by the earlier context. In verse 1 the writer exhorts Timothy to offer prayers ὑπὲρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων. Does that mean on behalf of all men/people in an absolute sense? Given other statements reflecting Christian doctrines elsewhere in the NT, like 1 John 5:16, Mark 3:29, and probably Matt. 18:17, one must ask whether the author of 1 Tim. wanted Timothy to pray for ALL people in an absolute sense. "All sorts of" here then may make good sense. If that is so, then continuing that thought 3 verses later may be viewed as at work.
BTW, I'm not defending Fred Franz or the NWT per se here. Rather I'm looking at factors not mentioned by Bobcat that may have been in play, beside the WTS's taking the 144,000 in Revelation literally. Furthermore, just because God wants all to be saved, that does not all will, given the free will that humans possess.