Narkissos, Narkissos,
You rock man. You show some real clarity of reasoning. Superb! I enjoyed that very much.
But to pick up on a loose end....Mondo 1, you mentioned John 14:9: eimi being translated with have been in one translation and others with am.
Nice example.
LITV: Joh 14:9 Jesus said to him, Am I so long a time with you, and you have not known Me, Philip? The one seeing Me has seen the Father! And how do you say, Show us the Father?
ISV:Joh 14:9 Jesus said to him, "Have I been with you all this time, Philip, and you still do not know me? The person who has seen me has seen the Father. So how can you say, 'Show us the Father'?
NWT:John 14:9 Jesus said to him: “Have I been with YOU men so long a time, and yet, Philip, you have not come to know me? He that has seen me has seen the Father [also]. How is it you say, ‘Show us the Father’?
I checked on other languages also and there are reputed translations which render the text in present tense. Others render it in the perfect tense.
What bearing have these two different renderings on the meaning? I fail to see it but maybe you can pint out the "dishonesty", as you phrased it, in either of them. How about the insertion, excuse me, interpolation of the word [also].
Clearly, this word needed to be added to clarify the meaning. Now, tell me what in your view is dishonest...
Cheers
Borgia