evangelist,
It clearly is a serious thing to remove any part of the message God inspired for us. Or to add to it. Or to change it. But when we say this just what message are we referring to? Are we referring to what Mark himself wrote in Greek? Or are we referring to the Latin translation by Jerome called the Vulgate which was the accepted Bible for about a thousand years. Or are we referring to the English translation of 1611 authorised by King James? Or some other translation? I think you will agree that if we find the English translation has additional material to the earliest Greek copies we would share in the blame if we left it there. Removing it would not be cutting out scripture but cutting out words that others had previously added.
Now let's consider the textual evidence for Mark 16:9-20. The book I referred to in my earlier post, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, was edited by Bruce Metzger on behalf of and in cooperation with the Editorial Committee of the United Bible Societies' Greek New Testament (Kurt Aland, Matthew Black, Carlo Martini, Bruce Metzger and Allen Wikgren). I assure you these men have impeccable credentials as textual scholars.
In addition to the fact that these verses are absent from the two oldest Greek manuscripts (Sinaiticus & Alexandrinus), the Sinaitic Syriac (of the second/third century), the Old Latin ms k (of the fourth/fifth century), and the earliest Georgian manuscripts...a considerable number of manuscripts that do have this passage have scribal notes stating that older Greek copies lack it, and in other witnesses the passage is marked with asterisks to indicate a spurious addition to a document.
Internal evidence also throws doubt on the originality of these additional verses:
The vocabulary and style are not Markan. The words "does not believe", "hurt", "backed up", "accompanying", "seen", "with", "these", "go", "working with" and "later" are found nowhere else in Mark. And the word "deadly" and expression "those who had been with him", as designations of the disciples, occurs only here in the New Testament.
Further, consider the connection between verse 8 and verses 9-20. The subject of verse 8 is the women, whereas Jesus is the presumed subject in verse 9. In verse 9 Mary Magdalene is identified even though she has been mentioned only a few verses before (15:47 and 16:1). The other women are now forgotten. The use of "After he rose" and the position of "first" (in "appeared first to Mary") are appropriate at the beginning of a narrative, but ill-suited in a continuation of verses 1-8.
The Committee concludes:
"In short, all these features indicate that the section was added by someone who knew a form of Mark that ended abruptly with verse 8 and who wished to supply a more appropriate conclusion. In view of the inconsistencies between verses 1-8 and 9-20, it is unlikely that the long ending was composed ad hoc to fill up an obvious gap; it is more likely that the section was excerpted from another document, dating perhaps from the first half of the second century."
Why is the ending so abrupt? Metzger suggests that three possibilities are open: (a) Mark intended to close his Gospel at this place; or (b) the Gospel was never finished; or, as seems most probable, (c) the Gospel accidentally lost its last leaf before it was multiplied by transcription.
So to put things very simply, it is clear that the earliest readers of the gospel of Mark in Greek, or of the Syriac, Latin and Georgian translations would consider anything beyond verse 8 as "adding to the Word". There are good reasons to believe they would be right.
Which is a bit disappointing. Because in most instances of fraudulent "powerful works" it is the crippled and sick and blind who are desolated when it turns out the healing is simply an illusion. But show me the preacher who will drink the poison I provide and then there will be something to believe!
Earnest