Craig,
the problem that we have in identifying references to the Hebrew scriptures is that it is not always clear which scripture is referred to and, in fact, whether there is a reference at all because it is not specified. This can be just as true today in conversation or correspondence where you might quote a few words which your audience would recognise - "bad association...", "do not forsake...", "the fruits of the spirit..." - and we know what it says and where it comes from. There is good reason to believe that the Jews committed a large amount of scripture to memory (and in fact there are various mnemonic aids, particularly in Psalms) and so would have been aware when scripture was alluded to. There is an additional problem in identifying the reference because it is clear they were not always using the Hebrew scriptures which we use. Often they were quoting from the Septuagint of which there were diverse copies. And a consideration of the Dead Sea Scrolls shows there was diversity there too (e.g. some extra psalms).
Whether or not it is correct to use the divine name in the NT is not clear-cut. I don't think there can be criticism of those who do not use it as there are no extant manuscripts containing it. On the other hand it is clear that the divine name was replaced with 'lord' in the Septuagint in the first and/or second century AD and so it is not unreasonable to contend that was also true of the NT. So, when considering the verses that may have been affected we have to look at the instances where 'lord' definitely refers to Jehovah, where the OT is quoted or alluded to, and where Hebraisms are used which contain the divine name in the OT.
Using the information from The Tetragrammaton and the Christian Greek Scriptures (which can be downloaded from the link Moxy gave) I would like to consider the info you provided in greater depth.
The Divine Name in the New World Translation
says (pp. 20-21) (bold added):
"The table lists only 78 instances (or 76 when the 1 Peter references are omitted) in which a Christian Scripture quotation can be traced directly to a Hebrew Scripture reference.
In addition to these ,
The Tetragrammaton and the Christian Greek Scriptures (T&CGS) lists the following 26 places where "Jehovah" is based on a Hebrew Scripture quotation using the divine name:
Matthew 4:4.................Deuteronomy 8:3
Luke 1:17.....................Isaiah 40:3
Luke 1:76.....................Malachi 3:1
John 6:45......................Isaiah 54:13
Acts 2:39.......................Joel 2:32
Acts 7:33.......................Exodus 3:5
Romans 4:3....................Genesis 15:6
Romans 10:13................Joel 2:32
2 Corinthians 3:16...........Exodus 34:34
Galations 3:6...................Genesis 15:6
Colossians 3:16..............1 Chronicles 16:23
1 Thessalonians 5:2.........Zephaniah 1:14
2 Thessalonians 2:2.........Zephaniah 1:14
Hebrews 2:13................Isaiah 8:18
James 2:23 (1st ref.).......Genesis 15:6
James 3:9.......................Psalm 34:1
James 5:11.....................Job 42:10
James 5:11.....................Psalm 103:8
James 5:15.....................Hosea 6:11
2 Peter 2:9.....................Psalm 34:19
Jude 9............................Zechaiah 3:2
Jude 14..........................Deuteronomy 33:2
Revelation 1:8................Isaiah 48:12
Revelatin 4:8..................Isaiah 6:3
Revelation 15:3..............Psalm 111:2
Revelation 22:5..............Isaiah 60:19
To these I would add:
Luke 1:68.....................Psalm 72:18
So, that brings our total to 105 in terms of direct evidence where the NWT NT could properly use "Jehovah."
In addition to these, T&CGS lists the following 9 places where "Jehovah" is based on a quotation which refers to the divine name although it is not found in the Hebrew Scripture verse per se.
An example of this is Acts 7:31,32 which is quoting from Exodus 3:6 and it says "But as he [Moses] was approaching to investigate, Jehovah's voice came, 'I am the God of your forefathers...' ". Exodus 3:6 actually says "And he went on to say: 'I am the God of your father...' " but verse 7 continues "And Jehovah added..." so it refers to the divine name.
Other similar verses are:
Acts 13:47....................Isaiah 49:6
1Corinthians 10:9..........Numbers 21:6
1 Corinthians 10:22.......Deuteronomy 32:21
2 Corinthians 6:18.........Isaiah 43:6
Hebrews 8:2.................Exodus 25:9
James 2:23.(2nd ref.).....Isaiah 41:8
2 Peter 3:8....................Psalm 90:4
Revelation 15:4.............Jeremiah 10:7
To these I would add:
2 Peter 3:9....................Isaiah 30:18
2 Peter 3:10,12.............Zephaniah 1:14
Now just a brief comment about Hebraisms which doubtless make up the majority of the "83 'Jehovah' references in the New World Translation Christian Scriptures were not derived from Hebrew Scripture quotations" (The Divine Name in the New World Translation, p.21).
We are accustomed to speak of the "angel of the Lord" because that is the way we hear it in nativity scenes, negro spirituals, hymn books and most bible translations. But amazingly the Hebrew scriptures never refer to the "angel of the Lord". It is always the "angel of Jehovah", "angel of God" or "angel of the true God", but predominantly "Jehovah's angel" (e.g. Numbers 22:22-27,31,32,34,35; Judges 2:1; 6:22; 13:13,15-18,20,21). So for more than a thousand years this has been a common expression. If, then, the NT suddenly starts referring to the "angel of the Lord" and there is reason to believe that elsewhere 'lord' has been substituted for 'Jehovah' I suggest that is a strong case for returning to the Hebraism. This affects nine verses - Matthew 1:20,24; 28:2; Luke 1:11; 2:9; Acts 5:19; 8:26; 12:7,23.
The same is true of the expression "the word of Jehovah". The Hebrew scriptures do not use the expression "word of the Lord" except three instances which refer to the "word of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah" (Ezekiel 6:3; 25:3; 36:4). But there are numerous references to "the word of Jehovah" (e.g. Ezekiel 1:3; 3:16; 6:1; 7:1; 11:14; 12:1,8,17,21,26; 13:1,2; 14:2,12; 15:1; 16:1,35; 17:1,11; 18:1; 20:2,45,47; 21:1,8,18; 22:1,17,23; 23:1; 24:1,15,20; 25:1; 26:1; 27:1; 28:1,11,20; 29:1,17; 30:1,20; 31:1; 32:1,17;33:1,23; 34:1,7,9; 35:1; 36:1,16; 37:4,15; 38:1). This is an expression devout Jews would be using all the time. In the NT the expression "word of the Lord/Jehovah" occurs 12 times at Acts 8:25; 12:24; 13:44,48,49; 15:35,36; 16:32; 19:20; 1 Thessalonians 1:8; 4:15 and 2 Thessalonians 3:1.
I also think a good case could be made for "glory of Jehovah" at Luke 2:9 and 2 Corinthians 3:18 (compare Exodus 16:7,10; 24:16,17; Numbers 14:10; 16:19,42; 20:6; Isaiah 35:2; 40:5; 58:8; 60:1; Ezekiel 1:28; 3:12,23; 10:4,18; 11:23; 43:4,5; 44:4), "law of Jehovah" at Luke 2:23,24,39 (compare 1 Chronicles 16:40; 22:12; 2 Chronicles 12:1; 17:9; 31:3,4; 35:26; Psalms 1:2; 19:7; 119:1) and "hand of Jehovah" at Luke 1:66; Acts 11:21 and 13:11 (compare Exodus 9:3; 13:3,9,14,16; 14:31; 15:6; 16:3; Isaiah 19:16; 25:10; 26:11; 40:2; 41:20; 51:17; 59:1; 62:3; 66:14).
In suggesting that these Hebraisms should influence translation of the NT it must be kept in mind that apart from the exception specified ("word of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah"), the expressions "word of the Lord", "glory of the Lord" and "hand of the Lord" simply do not exist in the entire OT. This alone should give pause for thought.
And, finally...compliments of the season.
Earnest
Edited by - Earnest on 26 December 2002 0:9:6