aqwsed12345 : Therefore, while the Greek word ektise can mean âcreate,â the
underlying Hebrew context allows for a broader range of meanings, including
âpossess.â
The Hebrew scriptures were translated into Greek so they would be available to Jews who could not understand Hebrew, which by this time was only a liturgical language. Greek was the language used by the NT writers and it is clear from the scriptures I listed that they understood and used ektisen and ktiseos as created and creation respectively.
I suggest that just as John, as a believing Jew, could not write "in the beginning" (John 1:1) without having Genesis 1:1 in mind, so the writer of Revelation could not write "the beginning of the creation by God" without having Proverbs 8:22 in mind. This is no "surface-level similarity". The people of that age memorised huge chunks of scripture as the written word was not as available as it is today. Their audience would always include Jews and so they would allude to OT passages, especially in connection with Christ, to show there was a continuity of faith.
When a Jew read John 1:1 they would immediately think of Genesis 1:1. When they read Revelation 3:14 they would immediately think of Proverbs 8:22. It doesn't matter how Athanasius and the post-Nicene fathers interpreted it. What matters is how the writer of Revelation and his immediate audience understood it, and the evidence is quite clear about that.