I really appreciate the responses to this verse and would like to say thanks yet I really feel most misunderstood what I was asking and the point I'm making.
Sure in this verse it could be argued that God changed his/her mind about destroying the Israelites on this occasion and in light of how it's worded that would be a valid concern.
But what I was really after is why did so many translations in this verse use the word "evil" in reference to what God was going to do, instead of other words like calamity,destruction etc.?
In other words as JW's we were taught that God=good and Satan=Evil. That this was all revolving around a battle between Good versus Evil.
Battle between the forces of Light versus the forces of darkness so to speak.
So if God doesn't do evil things, what prompted the word evil to be inserted in so many translations in this case?
Also if you go up a few preceding verses and read them, it seems Jehovah has reached a judgement(decision) as regards these unfaithful Israelites and yet Moses was able to get God to change his mind on his judgement call. What the heck is that about?
So Jehovah can reach a decision/judgement on his people, and HE is suppose to be perfect in all his ways and yet a mere imperfect mortal can cause him to change his "perfect" judgement. Something doesn't add up.