Posts by Inkie

3

AGuest! You there?

by Inkie in

jw
friends

aguest!

as i mentioned in a post elsewhere, the word messiah contains with itself the name of godjah.

i just wanted to tell you that the septuagint (lxx), as shown in www.blueletterbible.com, tells us in daniel 9:26 of the coming of the messiah, or as the lxx says, the coming of khristos kurios (two greek words for the one hebrew wordmessiah) or the anointed of jah.

Inkie

AGuest! You There?

As I mentioned in a post elsewhere, the word “Messiah” contains with itself the name of God—Jah. I just wanted to tell you that the Septuagint (LXX), as shown in www.blueletterbible.com , tells us in Daniel 9:26 of the coming of the Messiah, or as the LXX says, the coming of “khristos kurios” (two Greek words for the one Hebrew word—Messiah) or the ‘Anointed of Jah.’ I thought that was so cool!

In doing casual and further research, the Voice suddenly took me to Luke 2:11. There it reads:

“for there is born to you this day in the city of David a Saviour, who is Christ the Lord.”

But the interesting part was that the Voice said the phrase “Christ the Lord” is made up of the same words here as it is in the LXX, so that the angel was actually saying “a Saviour, who is the Anointed of Jah.” The angel was not saying: “a Saviour, who is the Anointed AND Lord.” (Although the angel would be correct in so saying nonetheless.) It’s just that he wasn’t saying that. The words in the LXX at Daniel 9:26 or the exact same words in Luke 2:11. They are in the exact same order, and in the same language—Greek. It can only have one legitimate meaning or translation in both places.

I am reminded of that text in the NT where it reads (in the Greek): “quite mixing in company with” in two separate places (can’t remember exactly where it is right now), but the Society translates the end meaning in one occurrence as “disfellowshipping” and the other occurrence as “marking” where you still treat the person as a “brother.” How does that work? I always thought you can’t have the same phrase meaning two different end results. But that’s what the Society does.

Anyway, I just thought I’d share with you where the Voice took me. Way cool!

20

A People for His Name

by AGuest in

jw
friends

my lord: "if that is true, that such term was "by divine providence," is there any other name they need to identify themselves by?".

those who also identify themselves by other names.

my lord: and they use such to identify them... with regard to who they belong to... and distinguish themselves from those they do not belong to, do they not?".

Inkie

My Dearest Chelle,

I am reminded too that the word “Messiah,” like so many other biblical names, whether of people or places, contains within itself the name of our God: “Iah”: MessIAH. This word/title encompasses within itself God’s name.

Take, for example the following peoples’ names:

IsaIAH

UzzIAH

HezekIAH

JeremIAH

HilkIAH

JosIAH

ZedekIAH

ObadIAH

ZephanIAH

GedalIAH

ZecharIAH

BerechIAH

The big reference Bible that Jehovah’s Witness published, in its footnotes, plainly tells anyone reading those footnotes these facts. It’s sad so few read the footnotes.

Thus, the Hebrew title/word “Messiah” specifically and literally means: “the Anointed of JAH”; in contrast to any “other” anointed ones like ‘the anointed of Saturn’ or the ‘anointed of Thor’ or the ‘anointed of Pluto’, etc., etc., etc. These “anointed” ones of “other” gods (whoever they might be) while being, in fact, Christians (“anointed ones”), using the Greek word now, as the term denotes, are not the “Anointed of Jah” or, said another way, again using the Greek word instead of the Hebrew word, are not Christians of Jah. The Greek term “Christian” while accurate, is not entirely accurate. It means ONLY “Anointed One”; but of whom? Christian of Whom? If we choose to use the Greek word—Christians—then we need to specify of Whom we are Christians.

We must be Christians of Jah. And being so is of Jah’s and Christ’s choosing—not ours. There is no other way.

May Jah bless.

18

Jesus is Not Michael

by JosephMalik in

you all know that i argued this the other way and could not get good answers to daniel chapter 12. but if you see michael as performing a function much like john the baptist did and how the jews believed that elijah must come first then michael's function of standing in advance of the return of our lord for a short time prior to the resurrection of the dead makes perfect sense.

and it also gives a slightly different meaning to the words: " and what shall be the sign of thy coming, (events that take place after the standing up of michael) and of the end of the world?

" (christs return or presence.

Inkie

The WT teaches that Michael is Jesus because at 1 Thessalonians, chapter 4, it states that Jesus will descend from heaven "with" an arkangel's voice, concluding erroneously that Jesus has an arkangel's voice rather than Michael preceeding Jesus' arrival "with" a trumpet's voice announcing his arrival. Any King in ancient times arrived with trumpets being blared annoucing the King's coming and arrival and upon arrival--his presence.

4

so now theres more remenant?!!!!!lol

by xbro in

jw
friends

so the old cut off date of 1935 is old thinking??

the light gets brighter my ass!

theyre running scared as all the olds die off,remember the awake line about the world ending befor e the 1914 generation died out??

Inkie

If you read the "Book" for what the books says, the Great Crowd does not make an appearance until AFTER the great tribulation, which is yet a future event. There cannot be existing NOW a great crowd. It does not get identified until AFTER the great tribulation. So, what does exist now are Christian (anointed ones as there are no other kinds of Christians), Christians who have the ONE HOPE of being with Christ.

The Society ONCE TAUGHT that the great tribulation commenced with World War I and that it's days were cut short at the end of that war, and commenced again with World War II and again its days were cut short at that war's end so that the Great Crowd could COME OUT OF the great tribulation. In 1969 at the summer convention, the Society changed its teaching and made the great tribulation a FUTURE event; however, they forgot to tell us that then that leaves the reason for the Great Crowd's existence--non-existent. Duh!!! There is no Great Crowd NOW!!! Again its first identification is AFTER the great tribulation--not before it!

Every Christian living today is anointed for that is what "Christian" means.

47

A question for Christians

by paul from cleveland in

jesus said to 'go your way and sin no more' and the bible also says not to 'use the grace of god as an excuse to sin'.

however the bible also says that 'all sin and fall short of the glory of god'.

this means that we can only partially obey the commandment to be sinless.

Inkie

Dear Paul:

Jesus said to 'go your way and sin no more'

In reading the biblical context of Jesus’ statement, you will note that he was talking to a woman who had been caught in the very act of adultery. No one who wanted to condemn and stone did so because none of them was without sin. They all left the scene. Jesus then asked the woman, ‘did no one condemn you’? She said, ‘no, not one.’ He then said, ‘Then neither do I condemn you. Go your way and sin no more.’ Thus, in the context of this narrative, Jesus was not talking about being sinless, he was talking about going one’s way and striving not to commit a similar sexual sin. But note, he did not condemn her for committing a sexual sin.

and the bible also says not to 'use the grace of God as an excuse to sin'.

Yes, the Bible does state this. What’s so hard to understand about this statement? It seems a “given,” yes?

However the bible also says that 'all sin and fall short of the glory of God'.

Yes, the Bible also states this. So . . . what’s your point? Simply put, ALL have sinned. Jesus himself stated that one of the reasons he came was to ‘call sinners’—not the righteous.

This means that we can only partially obey the commandment to be sinless.

There is absolutely no command in scripture (or the Bible for that matter) which states that we must be sinless. Where did you get that? The Bible admonishes us to try hard not to sin but nowhere does it state that we must be sinless. On the contrary, the apostle John writes that IF we sin, we have a Help with the Father, a righteous one. Paul, we are going to sin—we are sinners. But we should strive to do our best not to sin. But we have a Helper.

This fills me with as much anxiety that I had while being a Witness.

Let go of the anxiety. Jesus stated: “Do not be anxious.” Pretty clear cut, yes? “Do not be anxious over anything.”

How can I know if I'm being "good enough" for God?

Jesus made the statement that ‘no one is good except God.’ That being said, you, nor I, nor any other human being can be ‘good enough.’ Paul, where do you get this kind of thinking?

Since I can't be sinless, there must be some arbitrary cut-off point where I'm just not good enough.

True—you cannot be sinless. Deal with it. You will never be good enough. It is Jah and His Son who are good and because they are good, they fill the gap so that you can receive their loving-kindness and mercies and love and life and salvation, etc., etc., etc. They do it for you.

There's got to be a point when I've just committed one to many sins.

It is stated in the Bible that the ‘wages of sin is death.’ There is no such thing as ‘one to many sins.’ Adam and Eve committed only one sin initially which caused them to have to pay the price for that one sin—death.

As someone once asked 'am I going to die because I masterbated one to many times'?.

If you have masturbated even just one time (and if masturbation is a sin), then you have to pay the price—death. It is not about ‘ONE TO MANY TIMES.’ That’s it, that’s all.

You are forgetting the most important thing: Jah is a God of love, merciful and abundant in loving-kindness. That is why he sent his Son, to reconcile us to Him. You are being called. Come to me (Christ), Christ says. He is the resurrection and the life.

12

how can the Jw's explain away the haiti earthquake?

by highdose in

jw
friends

i'm sure they will get asked on the doors "how could god let this happen?".

i belive the standard answer is a fudged recitation of adam and eve, basicly meaning its ok that these people died becuase way back when, someone disobeyed god, and that makes it ok.... any other stupid jw explanations for this?.

Inkie

Two reasons: One, the earth does what it does. Always has, always will. Two, people do what they do since Adam: building poorly (corrupt construction), corrupt governments (taking all the profits, who cares about the people), individuals and groups slaughtering each other (vandals and looters, etc. Very, very sad indeed.

7

satan

by logic in

i'm sure someone has asked this before, but did jesus create satan, and does 'created all.

things' include beings..

Inkie

Jesus did not create Satan.

God -- Jah -- is the creator. And he didn't create Satan either. Everything Jah created was good. He created the Cherub who made himself into Satan. The defect was his own. Ezekiel 28 There were two Arkangels sitting upon the Ark of the Covenant, one of them being Michael and the other being the Cherub (who is now Satan) before he made himself into Satan.

Jah used his Son (Jesus) to create creation.

5

is there a spanish language equivalent of JWFacts.com?

by chickpea in

someone has asked me and i dont know if there is or not.

anyone?

bueller?.

Inkie

This might work for you: http://foro.univision.com/univision/board?board.id=testigosdejehova

--Inkie

25

John 14:2 - what does it mean

by quietlyleaving in

from the 21st century king james version (biblegateway).

2in my father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, i would have told you.

i go to prepare a place for you.. for some reason this verse keeps coming into my mind.

Inkie

Stephen: But of course it is literal--it's very real. And we will be part of it.

25

John 14:2 - what does it mean

by quietlyleaving in

from the 21st century king james version (biblegateway).

2in my father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, i would have told you.

i go to prepare a place for you.. for some reason this verse keeps coming into my mind.

Inkie

2In My Father's house are many mansions; if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.

Dear brothers and sisters in Christ: My father’s house (Temple) is not a house in which “we” inhabit per se; rather, it is a house which He and Christ inhabit. We, each of us as individuals, are the mansions (or the abodes or the rooms) which Jah and Christ will inhabit. We, each of us as individuals, are the rooms in which Jah and Christ inhabit or make their abode. We, each of us as individuals, are the “living stones” that make up the building with all its various rooms that Jah and Christ will inhabit. Our Lord, has gone to makea place for usto fit into the structure—the Temple—that Jah and Christ will inhabit. The Father’s house is a spiritual building not a physical one.

The apostles are the twelve foundation stones of Jah’s Temple (Ephesians 2:20; Revelation 21:14; 21:19), Christ himself is the foundation cornerstone of that Temple (Ephesians 2:20; 1 Peter 2:6-7), some are pillars and/or pearls in that Temple (Galatians 2:9; Revelation 3:12), and we will be “livings stones” in the Temple (1 Peter 2:5).

23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.—John 14:23.

23 Jesus answered, and said to him, If any man loveth me, he shall keep my word [he shall keep my words]; and my Father shall love him, and we shall come to him, and we shall dwell with him [and we shall make a dwelling at him].—John 14:23 Wycliffe New Testament.

10 for he (Abraham) was looking for the city which has foundations, whose architect and builder is God.—Hebrews 11:10.