aqwsed12345

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  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  @Duran

  While you may claim not to "parrot" JW interpretations, much of your eschatological framework aligns with their overall method of reading apocalyptic texts: rigid literalism and speculative sequencing of future events. The NWT is widely criticized for its theological bias, particularly in passages related to Christ's deity (e.g., John 1:1, Colossians 1:15-20) and eschatology. While you state that you consult other translations, your arguments often reflect the linguistic and theological assumptions embedded in the NWT. Using a more scholarly and widely accepted translation, like the NRSVue or ESV, would ensure that your interpretations are not unduly influenced by the NWT’s peculiar renderings.

  While you distance yourself from certain specific JW interpretations (e.g., the timing of Christ’s kingship in 1914 or the first resurrection in 1918), your broader framework—such as equating the MOL with the 8th king, a rigidly literal interpretation of the 42 months, and a future physical reign on earth—still reflects an eschatological approach that relies on speculative and selective literalism, a hallmark of JW theology. Simply disagreeing with JWs on certain points does not exempt your overall framework from critique, especially when it relies on similar interpretative methods.

  You assert that your interpretations are derived directly from Scripture. However, your approach selectively applies literalism to symbolic texts like Revelation, leading to conclusions that overlook the genre and purpose of apocalyptic literature. Revelation 13’s 42 months is symbolic of a period of intense persecution and opposition to God, not a literal three-and-a-half-year rule of a specific political entity like the "8th king." The 8th king (Revelation 17:11) symbolizes recurring systems of human rebellion against God, culminating in a final opposition before Christ's return. It is not limited to a singular future ruler.

  Equating the MOL with the 8th king and other apocalyptic figures (e.g., King of the North, small horn) is speculative and unsupported by Scripture. Paul’s reference to the MOL in 2 Thessalonians 2 speaks to a spiritual rebellion, which Catholic teaching sees as applicable across history, not confined to one individual or regime. Your claim that the MOL sits in God’s temple (2 Thessalonians 2:4) being the same as the 8th king in Revelation 17 misreads both texts. The "temple" in Paul’s writing likely refers to the Church or God's spiritual dwelling, not a literal structure tied to a specific political entity.

  Apocalyptic literature uses vivid symbols, not to create a precise timeline of future events, but to convey spiritual truths about God’s ultimate victory over evil. Over-literalizing these texts, as you do with the 42 months and the 8th king, distorts their theological message.

  You cite Mark 13:24-26 to assert that Christ’s return occurs after a singular, future tribulation period. Catholic teaching agrees that Christ’s second coming will follow great tribulation, but it views tribulation as a recurring reality, not a one-time event. Catholic theology recognizes the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 as a historical fulfillment of Jesus' warnings in Matthew 24 and Mark 13, prefiguring ongoing trials faced by the Church throughout history. The GT is not limited to a single end-time event but represents the broader struggle between the Church and the forces of evil (John 16:33; Revelation 12:13-17).

  The Catholic Church teaches that Christ’s return will be visible and glorious (Acts 1:11; Matthew 24:30), culminating in the final resurrection and judgment. This return is not tied to a 1,000-year earthly kingdom but marks the consummation of God’s eternal reign (2 Peter 3:13; Revelation 21:1-4).

  Your interpretation of the "first resurrection" as a future, singular event tied to a millennial kingdom diverges from Catholic teaching and broader biblical context. Revelation 20:4-6 refers symbolically to the spiritual resurrection believers experience through baptism and union with Christ (Romans 6:3-5; Ephesians 2:6). This “first resurrection” is ongoing, not a one-time event. The bodily resurrection, described in John 5:28-29 and 1 Corinthians 15, occurs at the end of time for all humanity, coinciding with the final judgment.

  You question why the dead need to be resurrected if they are already with Christ. Catholic teaching affirms that at death, the soul undergoes particular judgment, entering either heaven (possibly through purgatory), hell, or awaiting the resurrection. The bodily resurrection reunites the soul with a glorified body, completing God’s redemptive plan for humanity (Philippians 3:20-21).

  Your eschatology borrows heavily from JW-style speculative frameworks, which fail for several reasons. Attempting to create a precise sequence of future events from Revelation, Daniel, and other apocalyptic texts contradicts Jesus’ teaching that “no one knows the day or hour” (Matthew 24:36). Linking figures like the MOL, 8th king, and others into a single, cohesive timeline imposes meaning on the text that is not explicitly present. This approach relies more on human conjecture than scriptural exegesis. Separating Christ’s current reign (Matthew 28:18) from a future, earthly millennial kingdom undermines the New Testament’s teaching that Christ already reigns as King, and His return will bring about the eternal kingdom (1 Corinthians 15:24-28; Revelation 21:1-5).

  Your arguments reflect a speculative and overly literal approach to Scripture, particularly apocalyptic texts. Catholic teaching offers a more cohesive and biblically grounded eschatology, emphasizing Christ’s current reign, the spiritual reality of the Church, and the ultimate hope of the new heavens and new earth. While you critique Catholic doctrine as “lockstep,” it is rooted in Scripture, tradition, and the lived experience of the Church across millennia. By contrast, your framework is inconsistent, speculative, and heavily influenced by the problematic interpretive methods of groups like Jehovah’s Witnesses.
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  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  While some translations render Proverbs 8:22 as “first of His works” or “created me,” this interpretation is not the only valid one, nor is it the most consistent with the overall theological context of Wisdom literature. The Hebrew word qanah (קָנָה) is commonly translated as “acquired” or “possessed,” indicating that Wisdom is not a created entity but rather an eternal attribute or aspect of God. In the ancient Near Eastern context, wisdom is often portrayed as preexisting with the deity, and the use of qanah aligns with the idea of God “possessing” Wisdom from eternity rather than creating it as a separate being. This interpretation is consistent with the theological portrayal of Wisdom as an integral, coexisting aspect of God, without implying that it was created as a distinct entity.

  Regarding the term nasak, you claim it only means “anointed” rather than “founded.” However, Hebrew words often carry a range of meanings, and nasak can indeed mean “to establish” or “to set in place” in various contexts. While nasak is used in Psalm 2:6 to mean “anointed,” it is not limited to that sense. Other lexicons and commentators, like Delitzsch, have noted that nasak in Proverbs 8:23 can carry the meaning of “appointing” or “establishing” Wisdom in its preeminent role.

  Furthermore, the LXX translation uses ἐθεμελίωσε (ethemeleiose), which means “he established.” This demonstrates that ancient translators, who were closer to the original context, understood nasak in this passage to mean “established” rather than simply “anointed.”

  You suggest that phrases like “from everlasting” (πρὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος) do not necessarily imply eternity. While it's true that some terms used for “eternity” can denote long durations without being infinite, the context here suggests that Wisdom’s origin is from an indefinite, eternal past. Proverbs 8:23 emphasizes “from the beginning, before the world,” language that in biblical literature typically refers to an existence beyond created time. This is consistent with Christian theology on the eternal nature of the Logos, who was “in the beginning with God” (John 1:1).

  The argument that “ktizo” (create) cannot be understood in a straightforward Arian sense is based on the distinction between the Logos’ eternal generation from the Father and the temporal act of creation. While “ktizo” often means “to create,” it can also imply “to establish” or “to appoint” in certain contexts, depending on what is being described. Origen, for instance, did not interpret “ktizo” in Proverbs 8:22 as a literal creation out of nothing but saw it as an expression of the Son’s relational distinction from the Father while still affirming His divinity.

  Origen and other early theologians maintained that the Son is eternally begotten, not made, thus avoiding the Arian interpretation that the Son is a mere creature. The term “firstborn” (prototokos) used in Colossians 1:15 aligns with this understanding of preeminence rather than suggesting the Son is part of creation.

  You claim that there is no instance where “firstborn” followed by a genitive construction omits the subject from the category, such as “firstborn of the dead” implying Jesus was part of the dead. However, “firstborn of all creation” (Colossians 1:15) should be understood in terms of authority and rank rather than inclusion within the category of created beings. In biblical usage, “firstborn” often signifies preeminence and privilege, not literal sequence or category inclusion.

  In Colossians 1:15-17, Paul clarifies that “all things were created through Him and for Him,” making it clear that the Son is not part of creation but rather its Creator and Sustainer. This is consistent with the understanding of “firstborn” as a title of preeminence rather than indicating that the Son is a created being.

  You argue that the LXX holds a higher authority than the versions of Aquila, Symmachus, and Theodotion, as the New Testament authors frequently quoted the LXX. However, the authority of the LXX does not necessarily exclude the insights from other ancient translations. Early Christian interpreters were aware of both the LXX and alternative renderings, which can offer valuable perspectives. While the LXX was widely used, the early church also engaged with the Hebrew text and other Greek versions.

  The early Church Fathers interpreted the LXX’s rendering of Proverbs 8:22 in light of their theological convictions about the Son’s relationship with the Father. They did not uniformly interpret it as evidence that Christ was created but rather saw it as a metaphorical or poetic expression of His role in relation to God’s creation. This diversity of interpretation among ancient sources shows that the term “created” in Proverbs 8:22 does not straightforwardly support Arian or JW views.

  While early Church Fathers like Justin Martyr and Irenaeus applied Proverbs 8:22 to Christ, they understood it within the framework of Christian theology, which affirms the Son’s divinity. They did not view this passage as contradicting the eternal generation of the Son. Later theologians, especially in response to Arianism, clarified that “begotten” does not mean “created” and that the Son is eternally generated, not made.

  For instance, Athanasius argued that “begotten” refers to the Son’s unique, uncreated relationship with the Father. The council of Nicaea confirmed this by affirming that the Son is “begotten, not made, consubstantial with the Father.” Thus, any early references to Christ as “created” or “begotten” were reinterpreted within the orthodox framework to affirm His full divinity and co-eternity with the Father.

  In summary, Proverbs 8:22 does not necessitate a created status for Christ. The language of “beginning” and “firstborn” can denote preeminence, authority, and an eternal relational role rather than implying a literal creation. Both the linguistic and theological contexts support an interpretation in which Wisdom, personified as Christ, shares in the divine essence and stands as the eternal, uncreated Logos, fully God yet distinct in relationship to the Father.

  The New Testament’s affirmation of Christ’s eternal existence (John 1:1) and role as Creator (Colossians 1:16-17) makes it clear that He cannot be part of creation. Therefore, reading Proverbs 8:22 and Revelation 3:14 as implying Christ’s created status is inconsistent with the broader biblical witness to His divinity.
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  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  @Duran

  You claim you are not a JW while you parrot the JW interpretation, and use the NWT. Why not use a scholarly Bible translation like NRSVue?

  You assert that Paul's correction of Hymenaeus and Philetus (2 Timothy 2:17-18) indicates a future, singular first resurrection that aligns with Christ's second coming. However, this interpretation overlooks both the immediate context and the broader theological framework.

  Paul consistently teaches that believers experience a form of resurrection in this life through baptism and union with Christ. Romans 6:4-5 states, "We were buried with him by baptism into death... so we too might walk in newness of life." This "newness of life" is a spiritual resurrection, distinct from the future bodily resurrection at the end of time. Hymenaeus and Philetus likely denied the physical resurrection entirely, asserting a spiritual-only resurrection. This heresy subverted the hope of believers in the final bodily resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:12-19).

  Paul’s rebuke of Hymenaeus and Philetus focuses on their denial of a future, bodily resurrection. This does not imply that all references to resurrection in the New Testament are exclusively tied to Christ's return. Catholic teaching distinguishes between:

  1. The spiritual resurrection (AKA “first resurrection”), experienced by believers in baptism (Romans 6:3-4; Colossians 2:12).
  2. The bodily resurrection (AKA “second resurrection”), which occurs at the end of time when all will rise for judgment (John 5:28-29).

  Hymenaeus and Philetus were undermining the hope of the final, bodily resurrection. They were not addressing Revelation 20 or limiting resurrection to a future, 1,000-year earthly reign.

  So the "first resurrection" mentioned in Revelation is best understood symbolically as the spiritual participation in Christ’s reign. Revelation's apocalyptic genre often employs symbolic language (e.g., the "beast," the "144,000"). The "first resurrection" represents the victory of martyrs and saints who reign with Christ in heaven, not a literal physical resurrection occurring before a millennial kingdom on earth.

  You equate the Man of Lawlessness (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4) with the 8th king (Revelation 17:11) and tie both to the Mark of the Beast (MOTB). This interpretation conflates distinct biblical concepts and relies on speculative associations.

  Paul describes the MOL as one who "exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship" and "sits in the temple of God" (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4). Historically, this has been interpreted as a symbolic figure or system representing ultimate rebellion against God, culminating in a future manifestation. Catholic teaching recognizes the MOL as a type of antichrist figure, whose identity remains hidden but whose rebellion mirrors historical and ongoing opposition to God’s Church (e.g., 1 John 2:18). So Paul’s teaching about the MOL in 2 Thessalonians 2 is a warning against false claims that Christ’s return had already occurred. Paul emphasizes that certain events—such as the rebellion and the appearance of the MOL—must precede Christ’s coming.

  Revelation’s 8th king symbolizes a recurring pattern of oppressive worldly powers. These kings are not specific historical individuals but represent systems or empires opposed to God’s kingdom. The 8th king is not definitively tied to the MOL. Revelation's imagery serves as a warning about all anti-Christian forces, not a detailed prophecy about future global political systems.

  So the 8th king in Revelation 17:11 symbolizes worldly power and rebellion against God, linked to recurring systems of evil across time. Revelation’s apocalyptic symbolism resists literal, one-to-one correlations with modern entities. Interpreting the 8th king as an end-time figure ruling for 42 months (Revelation 13:5) imposes a rigid framework not supported by the text's genre or purpose. Unlike the MOL, the 8th king is part of Revelation’s broader symbolic narrative about the Church’s struggle against evil, spanning all of history.

  The Mark of the Beast represents allegiance to worldly powers that oppose God. It is not a literal mark but a symbol of those who reject God’s sovereignty (Revelation 13:16-17). The Catholic interpretation emphasizes the spiritual significance rather than speculative futurism tied to specific entities or timelines.

  You argue that believers receive relief only after the MOL’s rule, coinciding with Jesus’ second coming and the first resurrection. However, this interpretation misreads the nature of the Great Tribulation (GT) and ignores the present spiritual reign of Christ.

  The GT, described in Matthew 24:21 and Revelation 7:14, is not a singular future event but represents the trials and sufferings faced by the Church throughout history. These tribulations are part of the ongoing battle between good and evil. While the GT culminates in the final confrontation before Christ's return, it is not limited to a 42-month period or the rule of the 8th king. Believers already experience relief through Christ’s victory on the cross and His ongoing reign. Colossians 2:15 affirms that Christ has disarmed the powers and authorities, triumphing over them. This spiritual reality is the foundation of Christian hope, even amidst suffering.

  In Matthew 24, Jesus speaks of a “great tribulation,” primarily referring to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. This event prefigures ongoing tribulations the Church faces throughout history (John 16:33; Acts 14:22). Catholic teaching views tribulation as a recurring reality, not a singular event tied to a specific geopolitical timeline. The Church has faced—and continues to face—trials and persecution as it awaits Christ’s return. Paul teaches that relief comes at Christ’s second coming, when He defeats all enemies, including death (1 Corinthians 15:25-26). This marks the final consummation of His kingdom, not the start of a temporary, earthly reign.

  Your claim that the first resurrection occurs at Christ’s second coming (the "last day") overlooks the symbolic nature of Revelation and the theological distinction between the present spiritual reign of Christ and the future bodily resurrection.

  John 6:39-40 teaches that the final resurrection occurs on the "last day," which marks the culmination of history when Christ judges the living and the dead. This resurrection is universal (John 5:28-29), encompassing both the righteous and the wicked. Revelation 20’s "first resurrection" is distinct from this event, representing the spiritual victory of martyrs reigning with Christ in heaven.

  Jesus repeatedly speaks of raising believers on the “last day” (John 6:39-40, 44, 54). This refers to the final resurrection and judgment, not the start of a millennial reign. Catholic teaching affirms that the last day encompasses the end of history, when Christ returns to judge the living and the dead (Matthew 25:31-46). While Revelation 20:4-6 describes those who reign with Christ, it does not indicate that this is limited to a future millennium. Instead, this reign reflects the current participation of the saints in Christ’s victory (Ephesians 2:6). The final resurrection of all believers occurs at the end of time, coinciding with the general judgment (1 Corinthians 15:51-52).

  Revelation 20:4-6 speaks of the faithful reigning with Christ for 1,000 years. Catholic teaching interprets this symbolically, representing the current reign of saints in heaven. Christ’s kingdom is not a future geopolitical reign but His present rule over the Church (Matthew 28:18, Ephesians 1:20-23). So the 1,000 years is symbolic of Christ's current reign through His Church. This reign began with His resurrection and ascension and continues until His final coming (Matthew 28:18; 1 Corinthians 15:25). There is no scriptural basis for dividing history into rigid dispensations or claiming that the first resurrection is a future event limited to a select group of believers.

  The JW eschatological framework relies heavily on speculative interpretations of Revelation and other prophetic texts, which deviate from traditional Christian exegesis. The attempt to fit Revelation’s imagery into a strict chronological timeline leads to unwarranted speculations, such as tying the MOL to the 8th king or associating the MOTB with specific modern events. Revelation’s symbols are meant to convey spiritual truths, not detailed predictions of future events. The Catholic approach avoids the pitfalls of overly literal interpretations that distort the text’s message. Catholic theology emphasizes that Christ is already reigning through His Church. The so-called "1,000 years" is symbolic of the Church age, during which Christ’s victory over sin and death is manifested through the sacraments and the proclamation of the Gospel.

  Your interpretation simply reflects JW teachings, but these teachings face significant theological and scriptural challenges. Apocalyptic literature like Revelation uses symbolic language to convey spiritual truths. Treating the 42 months, 1,000 years, and other details as rigidly literal undermines the genre’s intent. The separation of Christ’s return, the resurrection, and the final judgment into distinct phases conflicts with the Bible’s teaching that these events occur simultaneously (Matthew 25:31-46; John 5:28-29). Linking the 8th king, the MOL, and the Great Tribulation to specific future events leads to speculative interpretations that lack biblical support and distract from Revelation’s core message of hope and perseverance.

  The Catholic Church affirms the bodily resurrection of the dead and the final judgment at the end of time, as taught in Scripture. While Revelation’s imagery is rich and complex, it must be interpreted in light of its symbolic nature and the broader biblical narrative. Speculative eschatological systems, like the one presented here, distract from the core truths of the Gospel: Christ’s victory over sin, His present reign, and the ultimate hope of eternal life in the new heavens and new earth.

  The Catholic understanding of eschatology provides a cohesive and biblically grounded framework for interpreting Scripture. It emphasizes Christ’s current reign through His Church, the hope of the final resurrection, and the ultimate renewal of all creation. While JW eschatology attempts to create a detailed timeline of future events, it does so at the expense of Revelation’s symbolic richness and its message of God’s ultimate victory over evil.
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  72

  Romans 9:5

  by aqwsed12345 in

  1. watchtower
  2. bible

  na28: ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα, ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν.. na28 transliterated: hō̃n hoi patéres kaì ex hō̃n ho khristòs tò katà sárka, ho ṑn epì pántōn theòs eulogētòs eis toùs aiō̃nas, amḗn.. kit: .

  nwt: to them the forefathers belong, and from them the christ descended according to the flesh.

  god, who is over all, be praised forever.

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  aqwsed12345

  The phrase ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς (ho ōn epi pantōn theos, “who is over all, God”) is most naturally understood as modifying the nearest antecedent, ὁ Χριστός (ho Christos, “Christ”). Greek grammar heavily favors the attribution of a relative clause to the nearest antecedent unless specific indicators suggest otherwise. Breaking the sentence after τὸ κατὰ σάρκα (to kata sarka, “according to the flesh”) requires inserting a pause not demanded by the Greek text. Such a construction introduces an unnatural division in the sentence, making it less coherent.

  The broader context of Romans 9:1–5 is Paul enumerating the privileges of Israel, culminating in the greatest privilege: that the Messiah, Jesus Christ, came from their lineage. Transitioning abruptly to a doxology about God the Father after mentioning Christ disrupts this rhetorical flow and detracts from the climactic point about Christ’s divine identity.

  Early Church Fathers, such as Irenaeus, Tertullian, and Athanasius, unanimously understood this verse as affirming Christ’s divinity.

  • Irenaeus: “Paul declares that Christ is God.” (Against Heresies, 3.16.3).
  • Tertullian: “The apostle speaks of Christ as ‘God over all.’” (Against Praxeas, 13).

  These interpretations predate later theological disputes, demonstrating the natural reading of the text as affirming Christ’s deity.

  While Paul does not frequently use the term theos for Christ, his writings unmistakably affirm Christ’s divinity in other ways:

  • Philippians 2:6: Christ, "existing in the form of God" (μορφῇ θεοῦ, morphē theou), did not regard equality with God as something to exploit.
  • Colossians 2:9: “In Him dwells all the fullness of deity (θεότητος, theotētos) bodily.”
  • 1 Corinthians 8:6: Paul places Christ alongside God the Father in a reworking of the Shema, attributing divine functions to Christ as the agent of creation.

  Romans 9:5 fits within Paul’s broader Christological framework, in which Christ is depicted as divine, worthy of worship, and coequal with God. While infrequent, Paul's application of divine titles to Christ is not unheard of:

  • Titus 2:13: “Our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ” (τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ).
  • Romans 10:13: Paul applies Joel 2:32 (“Everyone who calls on the name of Yahweh will be saved”) to Christ.

  The rarity of theos for Christ underscores its significance in Romans 9:5, emphasizing Christ’s unparalleled divine status.

  Critics propose that ὁ ὢν (the one who is) could be a scribal addition and suggest a hypothetical original reading: ὧν ὁ (of whom). However, this claim is speculative and unsupported by manuscript evidence. All extant Greek manuscripts unanimously support the reading ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς without any variants suggesting ὧν ὁ. Introducing such a change reflects conjecture rather than textual evidence. Metzger himself acknowledges that “there is no evidence in the manuscripts to support such a correction.” The hypothetical reading (ὧν ὁ ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς) proposed by Fitzmyer lacks parallels in Greek syntax and would create an awkward and unnatural phrase.

  Some modern translations (e.g., Goodspeed, Moffatt) reflect theological biases rather than the natural reading of the Greek text. By introducing ambiguity, these translations attempt to avoid the clear attribution of divinity to Christ. The traditional rendering (“Christ, who is over all, God blessed forever”) is supported by numerous major translations, including the KJV, ESV, NASB, NIV, and Catholic NAB.

  Critics argue that Paul typically directs doxologies to God the Father. However, this general pattern does not preclude exceptions, especially in passages emphasizing Christ’s unique status. Romans 9:5 is consistent with other Pauline texts where worship and exaltation are directed to Christ (e.g., Philippians 2:10–11, Colossians 1:15–20).

  Raymond Brown is cited as acknowledging the ambiguity of Romans 9:5. Critics argue that ambiguous texts should not be used to establish doctrine. However the doctrine of Christ’s divinity is not derived from a single verse but is supported by the broader testimony of Scripture, including John 1:1, John 20:28, Philippians 2:6, Colossians 2:9, and Hebrews 1:3,8. Romans 9:5 complements this broader witness, providing additional evidence rather than standing alone as definitive proof. While Raymond Brown acknowledges interpretive challenges, he does not deny the plausibility of the traditional reading. Ambiguity in translation does not negate the validity of the text as part of the cumulative biblical witness.

  In conclusion, the traditional reading of Romans 9:5, identifying Christ as “God over all, blessed forever,” is strongly supported by grammar, context, and the broader Pauline corpus. Arguments against this interpretation rely on speculative textual reconstructions, modern theological biases, and an inconsistent application of interpretive principles. While Romans 9:5 is not the sole foundation of Christ’s divinity, it remains a clear and powerful affirmation of His divine status within the overarching testimony of Scripture.
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  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  @Duran

  2 Timothy 2:18 indeed refutes false teachers like Hymenaeus and Philetus who claimed "the resurrection" had already occurred. However, the context does not mandate the JW interpretation that this refers specifically to the "first resurrection" as they define it. The resurrection is both spiritual and physical. Spiritual resurrection occurs when believers are raised to new life in Christ through faith and baptism (Romans 6:4-5, Colossians 2:12-13). Physical resurrection refers to the future bodily resurrection of the dead (1 Corinthians 15:42-44). Hymenaeus and Philetus likely misunderstood or distorted this dual aspect, confusing the spiritual renewal in Christ with the final resurrection. This does not negate that a spiritual resurrection was already a reality for Christians (Ephesians 2:5-6).

  So Hymenaeus and Philetus were subverting faith by misrepresenting the resurrection as a past event, which undermined hope in the future fulfillment of God’s promises. Paul is addressing their denial of a bodily resurrection, which is a central Christian doctrine (1 Corinthians 15:12-14). This passage is not a commentary on Revelation 20 but a correction of false teachings that denied the future, bodily resurrection of the dead. Revelation 20’s "first resurrection" is understood symbolically as the spiritual resurrection of believers through Christ. This occurs in baptism, where the believer dies to sin and rises to new life in Christ (Romans 6:3-5, Colossians 2:12). The bodily resurrection, when all the dead will rise, occurs at the end of time during the final judgment (John 5:28-29).

  The "first resurrection" in Revelation 20:4-6 symbolically refers to the spiritual reign of the martyrs and saints with Christ, not a literal event restricted to specific believers in the future. Nowhere does 2 Timothy 2:18 connect the resurrection to an eschatological sequence involving an 8th king, 42 months, or a future government. These are interpretations imposed on the text by the JW framework without biblical justification.

  The Catholic Church rejects the JW interpretation of the "first resurrection" as overly literalistic and inconsistent with the biblical text. The "first resurrection" in Revelation 20:4-6 refers symbolically to the vindication of martyrs and the reign of saints with Christ. This reign is not confined to a literal 1,000 years but signifies the victory of Christ’s kingdom, inaugurated through His death, resurrection, and ascension. Those who participate in the "first resurrection" are spiritually alive in Christ (Ephesians 2:6) and share in His heavenly reign, anticipating the final resurrection at the end of time.

  Revelation is an apocalyptic book filled with symbolic imagery. The 42 months (or 1,260 days) draw from Daniel’s apocalyptic framework (Daniel 7:25; 12:7) and symbolize a period of tribulation and persecution for God’s people. Catholic theology does not tie the 42 months to a literal geopolitical timeline. Instead, it represents the ongoing struggles of the Church throughout history, culminating in a final confrontation between good and evil.

  A literal 1,000-year earthly reign contradicts the broader biblical witness, which emphasizes the eternal nature of Christ’s kingdom (Luke 1:33, John 18:36). Revelation is apocalyptic literature, rich in symbolism. The number 1,000 represents completeness and fullness, not a literal timeframe.

  JWs identify the 8th king as a modern political entity like the United Nations. However, such a literal identification misses Revelation’s broader message: the 8th king symbolizes ultimate human rebellion against God, manifesting in different ways throughout history. There is no scriptural basis to confine the 8th king’s rule to a future 42-month period. Revelation’s imagery speaks to the recurring struggle of the Church against worldly powers, not a single, definitive timeline.

  Revelation 17:11 describes the "8th king" as part of the symbolic narrative of rebellion against God. It is not meant to pinpoint a specific geopolitical entity in modern times. Instead, it reflects the recurring manifestation of evil and opposition to God throughout history. The "42 months" (Revelation 13:5) or "1,260 days" is symbolic, derived from Daniel’s prophecies. It signifies a limited period of trial and persecution, not a literal 3.5 years tied to specific events. Catholic theology warns against speculative interpretations of apocalyptic texts, which can lead to confusion and fear. The focus is on Christ’s ultimate victory, not on decoding supposed modern fulfillments of prophecy.

  In Matthew 24:21, Jesus speaks of a "great tribulation," referring primarily to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. While this event foreshadows the ultimate fulfillment of eschatological prophecy, it is not limited to a single future event. Revelation’s depiction of tribulation reflects the ongoing persecution and suffering of the Church throughout history. It is not confined to a specific 42-month period under a political entity.The Great Tribulation is not a single, future event but a reality experienced by the Church in various forms throughout history. It represents the trials faced by believers as they remain faithful to Christ in a fallen world. This tribulation culminates in Christ’s second coming, which will bring an end to all suffering and establish the new heavens and new earth.

  So in Catholic teaching, the Great Tribulation simply refers to a period of intense suffering and persecution, culminating in Christ’s return. While it includes eschatological elements, it is not limited to a specific event in the future but reflects the Church’s ongoing struggles throughout history. This tribulation points to the broader reality of human sin and suffering, with Christ’s ultimate victory as the central hope (John 16:33). The "great crowd" in Revelation 7:9-17 represents the redeemed from all nations who have persevered through trials and now worship God in His presence. It is not limited to those who survive a future tribulation but includes all who have been faithful to God, united with the heavenly Church.

  In Catholic theology, the "last day" refers to the culmination of history, when Christ returns in glory to judge the living and the dead (John 6:40, 1 Corinthians 15:24-28). It does not inaugurate a literal earthly kingdom but ushers in the new heaven and new earth (Revelation 21:1-5). The "last day" marks the end of all earthly rule, including Satan’s, and the beginning of the eternal reign of God.

  In John 6:39-40, Jesus repeatedly refers to the resurrection of the dead occurring on the "last day." This "last day" is not the beginning of a 1,000-year reign but the final culmination of history when Christ returns to judge the living and the dead. Revelation 20’s millennium is symbolic of the Church’s present age, during which Christ reigns spiritually through His Church (Revelation 20:1-6). The "first resurrection" refers to the spiritual life believers receive through baptism and union with Christ. The actual bodily resurrection occurs after the millennium, at the final judgment, when all will rise to receive either eternal life or condemnation (John 5:28-29).

  The Catholic Church interprets the 1,000 years symbolically, representing the Church Age—the period between Christ’s first coming and His return. During this time, Christ reigns spiritually through His Church (Matthew 28:18-20). The eternal kingdom begins at the final judgment, not at the start of a 1,000-year interim period.

  The JW eschatological framework relies heavily on speculative interpretations of apocalyptic texts, particularly Revelation and Daniel, which are not supported by the broader biblical context or historical Christian teaching. Catholic theology provides a more balanced and Christ-centered approach, focusing on the ultimate victory of Christ, the resurrection of the dead, and the eternal unity of heaven and earth.

  The JW eschatology, including the 8th king, 42 months, and a literal 1,000-year reign, relies on speculative interpretations of apocalyptic texts. These views diverge from traditional Christian teachings in several ways. Revelation’s symbolic language is not meant to be a precise blueprint for future events. Interpreting symbols like the 8th king and the 42 months as literal and contemporary creates unnecessary speculation and distracts from the book’s spiritual message. The Bible consistently teaches that Christ’s return will bring the final judgment and the renewal of all things (Matthew 25:31-46, 2 Peter 3:10-13). The separation of these events into distinct phases is not supported by Scripture. Revelation was written to encourage persecuted Christians in the first century, using symbolic imagery to convey timeless truths about God’s victory over evil. Reducing its message to predictions about modern events undermines its broader spiritual significance.

  By emphasizing readiness, trust, and perseverance, the Church encourages believers to live faithfully, avoiding the pitfalls of speculative end-time predictions. The hope of the Gospel lies not in deciphering apocalyptic timelines but in Christ’s promise of eternal life with Him.

  The Catholic Church affirms the future, bodily resurrection of the dead and the final judgment on the last day, as taught in Scripture. While Revelation includes powerful imagery about the triumph of Christ, these passages must be interpreted within their historical, literary, and theological context. Speculative timelines, such as those involving the 8th king and 42 months, distract from the central message of Revelation: Christ’s ultimate victory and the call to faithfulness in every generation.
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  51

  The unending and fruitless argument on Trinity

  by Longlivetherenegades in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  those who say they are christians or follow christianity needs .

  1. father .

  2. jesus .

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  aqwsed12345

  @Rattigan350

  You argue that Jesus did not predict raising Himself from the dead because Acts states that God raised Him. However, John 2:19 explicitly records Jesus saying:

  "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up."

  The context clarifies that Jesus was referring to His body (John 2:21). While Acts 2:24 and other passages state that God raised Jesus from the dead, this does not conflict with John 2:19. The New Testament repeatedly shows the cooperative work of the Trinity in the resurrection:

  • The Father raised Jesus (Acts 2:24; Romans 6:4).
  • The Son raised Himself (John 2:19; John 10:17-18).
  • The Holy Spirit raised Jesus (Romans 8:11).

  This reflects the unity and shared power within the Godhead. Jesus’ fully divine nature ensured He retained authority over life and death, even in His humanity.

  "If Jesus could do that, He wasn't dead. Then the sacrifice was invalid."

  This misunderstands the nature of death in biblical theology. Death does not mean annihilation or the cessation of existence; it is the separation of the body and spirit (James 2:26). Jesus truly died, as His human body ceased functioning and His spirit was commended to the Father (Luke 23:46). His fully divine nature, however, remained unchanging, allowing Him to fulfill His promise of resurrection.

  You suggest that the apostles may have misunderstood or misrecorded Jesus’ words. This claim undermines the trustworthiness of scripture. However:

  • Jesus promised that the Holy Spirit would guide the apostles into all truth (John 16:13).
  • The New Testament writings are consistent in their portrayal of Jesus’ deity, resurrection, and mission.

  Dismissing Jesus’ words because they seem “crazy” or because they were written years later ignores the historical reliability of scripture and the divine inspiration claimed by its authors (2 Timothy 3:16).

  "Death Means Not Working or Functioning"

  This analogy of death to a "powered-off computer" is not biblically accurate. The Bible defines death as separation:

  • Physical death: the separation of the soul/spirit from the body (Ecclesiastes 12:7; James 2:26).
  • Spiritual death: the separation of a person from God due to sin (Ephesians 2:1).

  Jesus’ death was real, as His human body ceased to function. His fully divine nature did not cease to exist, as God is eternal and unchangeable (Malachi 3:6). This is why He could simultaneously die as a man and conquer death as God.

  You claim that Trinitarians rely on "weak and irrelevant" scriptures, such as John 1:1 and Thomas’ exclamation in John 20:28, while ignoring passages like John 1:49 and Matthew 16:16. This is inaccurate:

  John 1:1 clearly identifies the Logos (the Word) as God. The prologue to John’s gospel establishes Jesus’ deity from the very beginning, showing that He existed eternally with God and as God. This is not "spurious" but foundational to the Christian understanding of Christ.

  In John 20:28, Thomas explicitly calls Jesus "My Lord and my God" (Greek: ho Theos mou). This is a direct affirmation of Jesus’ deity. It is not "out of context," as Jesus immediately affirms Thomas’ faith, saying, "Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed" (John 20:29).

  Yes, Nathanael (John 1:49) and Peter (Matthew 16:16) confess Jesus as the "Son of God." This title does not contradict Jesus’ deity. In the Jewish context, "Son of God" implied equality with God (John 5:18), which is why the Jewish leaders accused Jesus of blasphemy (John 10:33).

  "They created this 'God the Son' thing to get around that."

  The title "God the Son" is a theological term summarizing biblical teachings about Jesus’ fully divine nature. It is consistent with the titles and attributes ascribed to Him throughout scripture.

  The claim that no first-century Christian believed in the Trinity ignores the gradual revelation of God’s nature in the New Testament. While the term "Trinity" is not in the Bible, the concept is:

  • One God: Deuteronomy 6:4; Isaiah 45:5.
  • The Father is God: Philippians 1:2.
  • The Son is God: John 1:1, John 8:58, Colossians 2:9, Hebrews 1:8.
  • The Holy Spirit is God: Acts 5:3-4; 2 Corinthians 3:17.

  The Trinity is not a later invention but the church’s articulation of what the Bible reveals about God.

  So your arguments rely on a misunderstanding of biblical texts and theological concepts. Jesus’ resurrection, His divine authority, and the consistent witness of scripture all affirm His identity as God the Son, fully divine and fully human. The doctrine of the Trinity is not "apostate" but a faithful reflection of the God revealed in the Bible.
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  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  @Duran

  Sleep as a metaphor for Death proves life after death

  The claim that the dead are "sleeping" until the resurrection is based on a misunderstanding of biblical language, which often uses metaphors to describe death. Below, I will address each scripture referenced and demonstrate how the Catholic understanding of the soul's immortality and consciousness after death aligns with Scripture.

  "Many of those asleep in the dust of the earth will wake up, some to everlasting life and others to reproach and everlasting contempt." (Daniel 12:2)

  This verse refers to the future bodily resurrection, not the state of the soul between death and resurrection. The phrase "asleep in the dust" is a metaphor for the death of the body, not the unconsciousness of the soul. The Catholic Church teaches that the body returns to the earth while the soul remains conscious (Ecclesiastes 12:7, Luke 16:19-31).

  "Lazarus our friend has fallen asleep, but I am traveling there to awaken him... Jesus, however, had spoken about his death." (John 11:11-13)

  Jesus uses "sleep" as a metaphor for death, emphasizing the temporary nature of physical death for believers. This metaphor is common in Scripture (e.g., Matthew 27:52, Acts 7:60) but does not imply unconsciousness. The conversation with Martha in John 11:21-26 further clarifies that Jesus promises a future resurrection, yet nothing in the passage supports "soul sleep." Instead, it aligns with the Catholic understanding of a temporary separation of body and soul.

  "I saw underneath the altar the souls of those slaughtered... they shouted with a loud voice... they were told to rest a little while longer." (Revelation 6:9-11)

  This passage explicitly shows conscious souls in heaven. They cry out for justice, indicating awareness. The command to "rest a little while longer" refers to awaiting the final judgment, not unconsciousness. These souls are alive and actively interceding, consistent with the Catholic belief in the communion of saints.

  "They came to life and ruled as kings with the Christ for 1,000 years. This is the first resurrection." (Revelation 20:4-5)

  The "first resurrection" refers to the reign of martyrs and saints with Christ in heaven, not a physical resurrection on earth. This aligns with the Catholic view that those who die in God's grace immediately enter heaven (Philippians 1:21-23) or purgatory if purification is needed. The final resurrection involves the reunion of body and soul.

  "The dead in Christ will rise first." (1 Thessalonians 4:15-16)

  This refers to the bodily resurrection at the Second Coming of Christ. It does not contradict the Catholic teaching that souls are conscious after death. Paul’s emphasis on the resurrection pertains to the body, as the soul is already with Christ (2 Corinthians 5:8). The Catholic Church distinguishes between the intermediate state (soul in heaven, purgatory, or hell) and the final resurrection.

  "The dead know nothing." (Ecclesiastes 9:5)

  This verse reflects the limited Old Testament understanding of the afterlife, which focused on Sheol (the grave). It does not negate the New Testament revelation of conscious existence after death. For example, Jesus speaks of Abraham, Lazarus, and the rich man as fully conscious in Luke 16:19-31. See also my opening comment HERE and THIS.

  "The rich man in Hades lifted up his eyes... Lazarus was being comforted." (Luke 16:19-31)

  This parable vividly illustrates the conscious existence of souls after death. The rich man and Lazarus are both aware of their respective conditions. While the parable employs symbolic imagery, it strongly implies the immediate fate of the soul after death, contradicting the idea of "soul sleep."

  "I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far." (Philippians 1:21-23)

  Paul clearly expects to be with Christ immediately after death, not in an unconscious state. His longing to "depart and be with Christ" demonstrates the Catholic understanding that the soul remains conscious and united with Christ in heaven before the resurrection.

  "We would prefer to be away from the body and at home with the Lord." (2 Corinthians 5:8)

  This verse directly opposes the "soul sleep" doctrine. Paul distinguishes between being "in the body" (earthly life) and being "with the Lord" (after death). The Catholic Church teaches that the soul of the righteous immediately enters God’s presence upon death.

  "He went and made proclamation to the spirits in prison." (1 Peter 3:19)

  This passage refers to Christ preaching to the spirits of the dead, further evidence of the soul's conscious existence after death. If the dead were unconscious, this event would be meaningless.

  "We are surrounded by so great a cloud of witnesses." (Hebrews 12:1)

  The "cloud of witnesses" refers to the saints in heaven who are alive and aware, interceding for us. This contradicts the idea that souls are unconscious until the resurrection.

  So the Bible simply uses "sleep" as a metaphor for death to emphasize its temporary nature (e.g., Matthew 27:52; 1 Corinthians 15:6). It describes the body’s state, not the soul’s. The soul’s consciousness is affirmed in numerous passages (e.g., Luke 16:19-31, Revelation 6:9-11). In Luke 23:43, Jesus tells the repentant thief, "Today you will be with me in paradise." This promise indicates immediate entrance into God’s presence, not unconsciousness. In Matthew 17:1-8, Moses and Elijah appear alive and conversing with Jesus. This event confirms the consciousness of departed souls.

  Hence the "soul sleep" doctrine is incompatible with Scripture and tradition. The Bible consistently affirms the conscious existence of souls after death. While the body rests in the grave, the soul remains alive, awaiting the final resurrection when body and soul will reunite. The Catholic teaching reflects the fullness of biblical revelation, offering hope and clarity about the afterlife.

  ---

  You stated that signs are given so we will know Christ is near and that His return can only happen after the Great Tribulation and the 42-month rule of the 8th king. While this interpretation aligns with some premillennial perspectives, Catholic theology provides a broader and more nuanced understanding of these signs:

  Mark 13:28-29; Luke 21:28: These passages about the fig tree emphasize vigilance and readiness, not a rigid timeline. Jesus calls believers to be prepared always, as the timing of His return remains unknown (Matthew 24:36). The purpose of signs is not to pinpoint the exact timing but to encourage perseverance and faith amidst trials.

  2 Thessalonians 1:7,10: This passage speaks of relief for the faithful and judgment for the wicked at Christ’s return. While it mentions Christ's coming in glory, it does not detail a specific chronological sequence of events, such as a 42-month rule. Instead, it highlights the finality of Christ's judgment and the consummation of His kingdom.

  The JW interpretation of the 8th king as a modern political entity (often the United Nations) and its supposed 42-month rule derives from speculative readings of Revelation 17:11 and Daniel’s visions. However, these interpretations lack solid historical and theological grounding.

  The Catholic Church recognizes Daniel’s visions as addressing historical kingdoms (e.g., Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, and Rome) while pointing typologically to Christ’s eternal kingdom (Daniel 2:44). The focus is on the fulfillment of God’s promises in Christ, not on speculative predictions about modern geopolitical entities.

  Attempts to identify the "8th king" in Revelation 17:11 with contemporary powers often ignore the apocalyptic genre's symbolic nature. This king is better understood as representing ultimate human rebellion against God, culminating in judgment, rather than a literal world power tied to a specific timeframe.

  JWs tie Daniel 7, 8, and 11 to their unique eschatological timeline, associating figures like the "small horn" with modern events. However, these interpretations fail to account for the broader historical context of Daniel, which primarily addresses the struggles of God’s people under oppressive regimes before Christ’s first advent.

  The "42 months" (Revelation 11:2; 13:5) is often taken by premillennial interpreters as a literal timeframe for the reign of the Antichrist or the Great Tribulation. Catholic theology approaches these passages with caution, emphasizing their symbolic meaning. The number 42 (or 1,260 days, or “a time, times, and half a time”) is symbolic, derived from Daniel 7:25 and 12:7. It represents a period of trial and persecution for God’s people but does not necessarily correspond to a literal 3.5 years. Revelation’s use of this timeframe reflects the Church’s ongoing struggle against evil forces throughout history, culminating in Christ’s final victory. It does not need to be tied to a future, precisely measured period.

  The "beast" in Revelation 13 symbolizes oppressive, anti-God forces manifesting throughout history. While these forces may intensify near the end, they are not confined to a singular figure or era. Catholic tradition warns against narrowing apocalyptic imagery to rigidly defined, modern scenarios.

  JWs interpret the Great Tribulation (GT) as a unique, future period of unprecedented global suffering, often tied to their eschatological timeline. However, the "Great Tribulation" described in Matthew 24:21-22 is understood in Catholic theology as encompassing both historical and eschatological dimensions. It includes past persecutions (e.g., the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD) and foreshadows the ultimate struggle between good and evil before Christ's return.

  This tribulation is not limited to a specific period but reflects the ongoing reality of suffering and persecution in the Church’s life. It culminates in Christ’s return but is not necessarily tied to precise chronological events. Speculative interpretations of the Great Tribulation often lead to unnecessary fear and confusion. Catholic theology emphasizes living in readiness and trust in God’s providence, as Christ can return at any time (Mark 13:33-37).

  The Catholic Church rejects attempts to predict the exact timing or sequence of end-time events, as such speculations often distort the Bible’s message and distract from the Gospel’s central call to faith, hope, and love. In Acts 1:7, Jesus explicitly states that the "times and seasons" are known only to the Father. Obsessing over dates and timelines undermines the Christian call to vigilance and trust in God’s timing. The focus of Christian eschatology is not on calculating dates but on living faithfully in anticipation of Christ’s return. This includes spreading the Gospel, serving others, and growing in holiness (Matthew 25:31-46).

  In conclusion, while the timing of Christ's return remains unknown, the Church teaches that signs will precede His coming, as Scripture indicates. However, these signs should not be interpreted rigidly or tied to speculative timelines about specific geopolitical events. The Catholic understanding of Daniel, Revelation, and the Great Tribulation focuses on Christ's ultimate victory, encouraging believers to persevere in faith and avoid sensationalism. By grounding our hope in Christ rather than speculative theories, we remain faithful to the Gospel’s call to readiness and trust in God's providence.
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  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  @slimboyfat

  While Jehovah’s Witnesses have popularized the idea of Christ as God’s first creation, this view did not originate in early Christian writings or theological treatises. Early Christian figures recognized the term "beginning" (Greek: archē) as indicative of the Logos's existence before creation rather than marking a temporal beginning or moment of creation for the Word. Attempts to interpret "beginning" as indicating Jesus as the "first creation" come more from Arianism (4th-century doctrine) and modern Jehovah's Witness interpretations than from early, orthodox Christianity.

  Your interpretation that Genesis 1 refers "only" to the physical creation—excluding the spiritual realm—is not widely supported in mainstream biblical scholarship. Genesis 1:1's "heavens and earth" (shamayim and eretz in Hebrew) typically means "everything that exists," encompassing both the physical and spiritual realms as well. Early Jewish thought and rabbinic interpretations saw shamayim as inclusive of all realms beyond human experience, not merely the physical cosmos.

  So Genesis 1 does use “heaven and earth” as a merism representing all creation. While Genesis 1 primarily describes the formation of the visible, material world, John 1:1-3 reveals that the Logos, preexistent and uncreated, was instrumental in creating all realms—both physical and spiritual. Colossians 1:16–17 affirms this by stating that Christ "is before all things", and all things—whether thrones, dominions, rulers, or authorities—were created through him, extending the scope of his creative power beyond the physical universe. Consequently, en archē in John 1:1 follows this same understanding, signaling that the Word existed prior to the totality of creation.

  The Greek grammar in John 1:1, specifically the use of the imperfect verb "ēn" (“was”), describes the Word as having continuous, ongoing existence "in the beginning" rather than marking the start of its existence. This language is markedly different from Greek constructions typically used to signify the beginning of existence. John’s use of "ēn" strongly indicates that the Logos was not brought into being but was already in existence "in the beginning," predating creation itself.

  So in John 1:1, the use of "ēn" (“was”) with "en archē" (“in the beginning”), is distinct, as it emphasizes continuous existence. John uses the imperfect form "ēn," indicating that the Word already existed continuously and timelessly. This construction parallels Genesis 1:1 but with a shift in focus from the created order to the preexistent state of the Logos, suggesting an existence that transcends the start of creation.

  Interpreting the Word as the first creation introduces a contradiction with John 1:3: “All things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.” If Jesus were a created being, John’s wording here would be contradictory, as it would suggest self-creation—an impossible notion in logical and theological terms.

  Many who argued for the Word’s creation have done so by selectively emphasizing John 1:14 ("The Word became flesh") as if this phrase implied a temporal origin for the Word. The early Church Fathers like Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, and Athanasius consistently interpreted John 1:1 as affirming the Word’s eternal nature. They maintained that the Logos existed with the Father from eternity, which directly contradicts any notion of Jesus as a first creation. The Nicene Creed (325 AD) clarified this theological confusion, declaring the Son "begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father." This creedal formulation directly refutes the view of the Logos as the "first creation" and confirms the Son's eternal coexistence with the Father.

  Thus, while there may be isolated attempts—ancient and modern—to interpret John 1:1 as implying that the Word had a beginning as the "first creation," these views stand against the language of the text, the theological tradition, and early Christian interpretations. The dominant understanding within both ancient and contemporary Christian theology sees the Logos as uncreated, eternal, and fully divine, consistent with the early Church Fathers and the doctrine articulated at Nicaea.
• 
  171

  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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• 

  aqwsed12345

  @slimboyfat

  "The heavens and the earth" is a Hebrew merism, meaning the whole created world, everything that was made. The Greek phrase ἐν ἀρχῇ (en archē, "In the beginning") parallels the opening of Genesis 1:1, where it signifies the absolute beginning of all things, not the emergence of a created being. John uses ἦν (ēn, "was") in “In the beginning was the Word,” which indicates continuous existence rather than a beginning point. This verb choice emphasizes that the Word already existed in the beginning rather than coming into existence at that point.

  The phrase "In the beginning" (Ἐν ἀρχῇ) in John 1:1 uses the Greek preposition "ἐν" (en) with the dative noun "ἀρχῇ" (archē), typically meaning "in the beginning" rather than "as the beginning" or "beginning of creation." The Greek here echoes the opening of Genesis 1:1 ("In the beginning God created..."), situating the Logos ("the Word") as preexistent and active at the dawn of creation itself. This usage does not imply that the Word came into existence at that point; rather, it indicates the Word already existed when creation began, emphasizing the Logos's eternal presence.

  This phrase does not imply that "the Word" was 'created' "in the beginning" as if it were the first act of creation. Instead, it conveys that the Word existed in the beginning, implying an eternal, timeless existence. The early Church Fathers and ancient interpreters universally read John 1:1 as affirming the preexistence and divinity of the Word, viewing the Word as uncreated and co-eternal with the Father.

  John 1:3 continues by saying, “Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.” If the Word was himself a created being, John’s logic would become incoherent because it would suggest that the Word was self-created. Instead, the passage indicates that the Word is the source of all creation, placing him outside the category of “created” things and affirming his role as the eternal Creator.

  So if the Word were the "beginning" in the sense of a first creation, it would contradict this passage, which explicitly states that everything created was made through the Word. Thus, if the Word had been a creation, it would mean the Word created itself, which is logically and theologically incoherent.

  Other New Testament passages align with this interpretation. Colossians 1:16-17 asserts that all things were created through Christ and that he “is before all things,” which points to his existence beyond time and creation. Hebrews 1:2-3 also emphasizes that the Son sustains all things, further supporting the understanding of the Word as eternal and uncreated.

  The early Christian understanding consistently interpreted John 1:1 as affirming the Word’s eternal existence and deity. While some later sects suggested that Christ was a created being, this view was rejected as inconsistent with the apostolic teaching and the clear message of John’s Gospel. The early Church Fathers—such as Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, and Athanasius—interpreted John 1:1 as affirming the Word’s divinity and eternal existence with God. They did not consider the Word a created being or the "first creation." Instead, they viewed the Logos as eternally existing with God, of the same divine essence. The idea of the Logos as the first created being was not part of mainstream Christian teaching and was later rejected by the Nicene Creed, which clarified that the Son was "begotten, not made," emphasizing eternal generation rather than creation.

  The earlier interpretations of the JWs may have explored the idea of the Logos as the first creation. However, this interpretation faces theological challenges: it introduces a duality within God that would disrupt strict monotheism by making the Word a secondary, divine figure rather than sharing fully in the essence of God. The traditional Christian doctrine of the Trinity, by contrast, holds that the Word is fully God and shares in the divine essence, avoiding any hierarchical subordination or polytheistic/henotheistic implications.

  The traditional interpretation of John 1:1 as affirming the Word’s eternal existence with God is rooted in both the text itself and the early Church’s understanding. Reinterpreting it as suggesting the Word was created “at the beginning” is unsupported by the Greek grammar, context, and historical understanding of the verse.

  @Duran

  You asked why believers who die in a state of grace aren’t simply resurrected immediately, instead of going to heaven. Catholic teaching acknowledges that there are two distinct events: the particular judgment (occurring at death) and the general resurrection (occurring at the end of time).

  John 6:39 speaks of the “last day” resurrection, and this refers to the bodily resurrection. The resurrection of the body, described in 1 Thessalonians 4:16, is indeed reserved for Christ’s return, but the souls of the righteous, already in friendship with God, can enter heaven immediately after death. This aligns with Hebrews 12:23, where the “spirits of the righteous made perfect” are in the presence of God, showing that the souls of the just are with God prior to the bodily resurrection. The “last day” resurrection does not negate the reality that souls of the righteous may enter heaven immediately after death. Catholic teaching differentiates between the immediate state of the soul after death and the final resurrection of the body.

  According to Philippians 1:23, Paul expresses a desire “to depart and be with Christ, for that is far better.” This implies that upon death, Paul expected to be immediately with Christ, which supports the belief that a soul can be in heaven even before the final bodily resurrection.

  The necessity of the resurrection on the “last day” is rooted in the Catholic belief in the resurrection of the body, not the soul. While souls of the righteous can be in heaven, they await reunion with their glorified bodies, fulfilling the biblical promise of bodily resurrection and the complete person’s restoration. The “last day” resurrection involves the reuniting of the soul with a glorified body. The Catechism of the Catholic Church teaches that, while souls of the righteous enter heaven, their resurrection in bodily form occurs at the final resurrection (CCC 1022, 1038).

  In Revelation 20:4-5, the “first resurrection” can be understood in two primary ways:

  1. Spiritual Resurrection: Catholic theology interprets the “first resurrection” as spiritual—where believers are raised to new life in Christ through faith and baptism. This aligns with John 5:24-25, where those who believe “have passed from death to life.” The “first resurrection” here is spiritual, marking the transition from death to life in Christ. It’s not necessarily the bodily resurrection, which is reserved for the “last day.”
  2. Martyrs’ Reward: Revelation 20 describes the souls of those who were martyred for their faith ruling with Christ, symbolizing the honor given to those who suffer for Him. The language about reigning with Christ is often viewed symbolically, referring to those who have died in faith being in the presence of God, not yet the general resurrection of all believers.

  So the mention of the “first resurrection” in Revelation 20:4-5 is traditionally interpreted as a symbol of the righteous’ participation in the reign of Christ. Early Church Fathers, like Augustine, saw this “first resurrection” not as a literal bodily resurrection but as the reign of the saints with Christ in heaven before the final resurrection.

  The reference to those “executed” refers to martyrs and saints who are alive in spirit with Christ, as indicated in Revelation 6:9-11, where the souls of the martyrs are seen under the altar in heaven. This implies that souls of martyrs are alive with Christ before the final bodily resurrection.

  The passage from 1 Thessalonians 4 describes the “last day” or general resurrection, when all the faithful are united with their glorified bodies. The “second coming” and the “last day” are indeed the culmination of history, where all who have died in Christ will rise bodily. But this does not negate the immediate entrance of righteous souls into God’s presence after death, as shown in passages such as Luke 23:43, where Jesus promises the thief, “Today you will be with me in paradise.” Jesus’ teaching on the afterlife does not indicate that righteous souls must “sleep” until the resurrection.

  So 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16 describes the bodily resurrection of the dead in Christ at His coming. Catholic teaching holds that this passage refers to the bodily resurrection of those who are already spiritually alive in Christ. Their souls may already be in heaven (cf. Philippians 1:23), but they will be bodily resurrected at His coming.

  Jesus’ “second coming” involves the “last day,” which includes the final judgment and resurrection of the body for both the righteous and the unrighteous (cf. John 5:28-29).

  Regarding your question on the “mystery” of Christ’s return, the Catholic Church maintains that while some signs are given, the timing remains unknown (Mark 13:32, Acts 1:7). Catholic theology teaches that certain signs—such as widespread evangelization, the appearance of the Antichrist, and cosmic disturbances—are indeed precursors to Christ’s return (see CCC 673-677). However, the exact timing and sequence of these signs are not fully revealed, which is why it remains a mystery. While certain events might occur, their precise fulfillment or timing can’t be pinpointed, as Matthew 24:36 emphasizes that “no one knows the day or hour.”

  In Catholic understanding, these signs (wars, tribulation, and cosmic events) indicate the transition into the last things, leading to the final judgment and the new heavens and new earth (CCC 1042-1050). This new creation will come about only at the very end, after the final judgment, marking the full consummation of God’s kingdom.

  So the Catholic theology affirms both the immediate presence of souls with God after death for those in grace and the future, bodily resurrection on the last day. While Revelation speaks symbolically about reigning and resurrection, it does not contradict the teaching that souls in grace enter God’s presence immediately. Lastly, the signs given by Jesus and throughout the Bible are real but are not intended to specify an exact timetable, allowing believers to live in readiness rather than speculation.

  In summary, Catholic doctrine, grounded in Scripture and tradition, upholds that souls of the righteous enter heaven immediately upon death if they are in a state of perfect grace, while awaiting the bodily resurrection on the “last day.” The passages you've cited do not contradict this belief but rather align with the Church’s understanding of the resurrection and the end times.
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  Alteration of Revelation 3:14 in the 4th century to support the emerging Trinity doctrine

  by slimboyfat in

  1. watchtower
  2. beliefs

  in an earlier thread another poster asserted that there is no evidence that revelation 3:14 played a part in the 4th controversy that led to the trinity doctrine.

  this was claimed as evidence that the description of jesus as “the beginning of the creation of god” in the verse was not understood to mean that jesus was god’s first creation.

  the scholarly greek–english lexicon of the new testament & other early christian literature 3e (2001) by bauer, arndt, gingrich, and danker, in its latest edition states that “first creation” is indeed the probable meaning of the greek phrase.

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  aqwsed12345

  @Earnest

  While it’s true that the Septuagint aimed to make Hebrew scriptures accessible to Greek-speaking Jews, this does not mean the translators always captured the full range of meanings present in the Hebrew text. The translation process inevitably involves interpretation, especially when a word like qanah has multiple possible meanings (e.g., “possess,” “acquire,” “create”). The fact that ektise was chosen doesn’t eliminate the semantic flexibility of the original Hebrew term. Many scholars agree that qanah in Proverbs 8:22 can mean “possess” or “acquire,” and that it doesn’t necessarily imply a temporal creation, especially in poetic or wisdom literature.

  Furthermore, the writers of the New Testament, while influenced by the LXX, often use language with deep theological nuance that requires careful interpretation. The word ektise may carry the meaning of "create" in most contexts, but it doesn’t demand a literal creation in every instance, especially when interpreting metaphorical or poetic texts.

  While it’s reasonable to consider that Revelation 3:14 could echo Proverbs 8:22, it’s crucial to recognize that allusions are not always literal repetitions of meaning. Revelation often uses Old Testament imagery in symbolic ways. Proverbs 8 personifies Wisdom, a poetic figure representing God’s wisdom in creation, not an actual created being. Wisdom’s "beginning" here refers to God’s eternal, originating wisdom rather than a specific moment of creation. The same metaphorical concept could apply to Christ as the "beginning" or "source" of creation in Revelation, aligning with the understanding of archē as “origin.”

  In other words, the connection to Proverbs 8:22 doesn’t require a literal interpretation that places Christ within the created order. Instead, it points to His unique, preeminent role in creation—He is the “beginning” in the sense that all things were made through Him, as stated in John 1:3 and Colossians 1:16.

  Your argument assumes that the earliest readers of Revelation would have automatically associated ektise with a literal creation and understood Proverbs 8:22 similarly. However, early Christian interpretation was not monolithic. The early Jewish and Christian understanding of archē in relation to Christ evolved to emphasize His preeminence and divine agency in creation, not His creation as a creature. This is evident in the writings of early theologians who, even before Nicaea, interpreted Proverbs 8 and Revelation 3:14 in ways that affirmed Christ’s divine status.

  While the New Testament writers often allude to the Old Testament, these allusions don’t dictate a single, literal interpretation. Instead, they often serve to deepen theological concepts. For example, John’s allusion to Genesis 1:1 in John 1:1 isn’t merely about temporal beginnings but about the Logos’s role in the eternal nature of God, highlighting continuity without implying literal replication.

  It’s not accurate to dismiss how early Church Fathers like Athanasius and others understood these texts. The post-Nicene Fathers, as well as pre-Nicene ones, were much closer to the language, culture, and interpretive traditions of the New Testament writers than we are today. Their interpretations reflect how these passages were understood within the early Christian community, particularly in the face of heresies that misinterpreted texts like Proverbs 8:22 to diminish Christ’s divinity.

  This historical context is invaluable because the early Fathers defended the eternal, divine nature of Christ against Arian interpretations that sought to make Him a created being. Their consistent interpretation of “beginning” and “firstborn” as referring to Christ’s preeminence, not literal creation, shows that the prevailing understanding in early Christianity upheld Christ’s co-eternity with the Father.

  In conclusion, while ektise can mean “create,” its application in Proverbs 8:22 and Revelation 3:14 should not be isolated from the broader theological context. The New Testament writers, while referencing Old Testament language, often employed it to express deeper, theological truths about Christ’s unique role and nature. The early Christian interpretive tradition confirms that “beginning” in Revelation 3:14 is best understood as Christ’s preeminence or role as the source of creation, not as a claim that He is a created being.