@Earnest
Your objection reduces to two propositions: first, that “common-sense” distributional evidence—namely the general use of ὁ θεὸς ἡμῶν for the Father—should override the grammar of a single-article TSKS clause whenever the titles appear capable of referring to different persons; and second, that the frequency of such clauses whose meaning is disputed (essentially Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1) licenses treating them as automatic exceptions to Granville Sharp’s canon. Both propositions collapse once the relevant linguistic data are weighed.
Koine Greek, like every natural language, encodes reference primarily by syntactic signals internal to the clause and only secondarily by pragmatic probability. In TSKS strings the decisive signal is article distribution. A single article placed before the first of two singular, personal, common nouns joined by καί binds the second noun inside the same determiner phrase. Where Greek authors wish to separate the referents they repeat the article, as Paul does in Gal 1:4 (τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ πατρὸς ἡμῶν) and as 2 Peter does one verse after the salutation (τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Ἰησοῦ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν). Conversely, when they intend a single referent, they omit the second article—see 1 Thess 3:11, 2 Thess 1:12, or the LXX idiom ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτήρ applied to Yahweh. Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 match the latter pattern exactly: τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ and τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. No native reader could miss the contrast between those clauses and the dual-article constructions that follow in the immediate context. To insist on dual reference is therefore to override the author’s explicit syntactic cue.
Sharp’s rule is not a theological mandate but a grammatical observation derived from consistent patterns in Koine Greek. It states that when two singular, personal, common nouns are joined by καί and governed by a single article, they typically designate a single referent. This is not a prescriptive imposition but a descriptive generalization, grounded in the syntactic behavior of the Greek article as a unifier of nouns within a single determiner phrase. Your assertion assumes the conclusion it seeks to prove: that “our God” and “Savior” in 2 Peter 1:1 and Titus 2:13 do refer to distinct persons (the Father and Jesus, respectively). Yet, this assumption cannot be used to dismiss the rule without first demonstrating, through unambiguous grammatical evidence, that the construction inherently supports dual reference in these specific cases. No such evidence is provided; instead, the argument leans on a circular claim that the referents must differ because they can differ, effectively begging the question. In Koine Greek, the presence of a single article signals unity unless clear contextual or syntactic factors override it—a condition unmet here, as both θεός (“God”) and σωτήρ (“Savior”) are singular, personal, common nouns, and no secondary article or explicit disjunction separates them.
The appeal to “common sense” distribution is linguistically misplaced. Frequency of a collocation in other contexts creates an interpretative expectation, but it does not annul the grammar of an individual sentence. Ὁ θεὸς ἡμῶν is indeed the Father’s customary title; that is what makes its deployment in these two Christological sentences striking. Languages regularly exploit established formulas in new reference assignments when context signals the shift—precisely what the shared article here accomplishes. The rarity of the shift is irrelevant; what matters is whether Greek provides the structural means to license it. It does.
Grammatical rules in any language, including Koine Greek, are not determined by the frequency of their application or by statistical prevalence alone but by their predictive reliability within defined syntactic constraints. Sharp’s rule has been rigorously tested across the NT and Hellenistic literature, with scholars like Daniel Wallace documenting over eighty examples where the TSKS construction with singular, personal, common nouns under a single article consistently indicates a single referent. You offered no counterexample from Koine Greek where such a construction unambiguously denotes two distinct individuals, a critical omission that undermines the claim. Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 cannot serve as evidence against the rule, as their interpretation is precisely what is under dispute; citing them as exceptions without independent substantiation is fallacious, as it assumes the dual-referent reading rather than proving it. Far from being an arbitrary application “regardless of common sense,” Sharp’s rule aligns with the syntactic norms of the language, and dismissing it based on infrequency reflects a preference for theological intuition over linguistic analysis.
Nor is the claim of rarity accurate. In John 20:28 Thomas addresses the risen Jesus ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου; the doubled article there marks two titles of a single addressee, demonstrating that early Christian usage was prepared to transfer θεός + possessive to Christ when theological context warranted. Outside the NT, the second-century martyrdom résumé of Polycarp closes with δόξα τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ καὶ ἁγίῳ πνεύματι, a tripartite TSK(S) string in which the article is not repeated before the final noun, yet no one imagines that the Spirit is a different referent from the Father in that liturgical doxology. These parallels expose the fallacy of treating distributional frequency as a veto on syntactic evidence.
While it is accurate that “our God” generally designates the Father, this distributional pattern does not preclude its application to Jesus in contexts where the grammar and theology support such a shift. Language, particularly in theological discourse, is flexible, and the NT frequently reappropriates traditional terms to convey expanded Christological truths. For instance, in John 20:28, Thomas addresses Jesus directly as “my Lord and my God” (ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου), using possessive pronouns akin to “our God” and explicitly applying the title θεός to Jesus. This demonstrates that early Christian usage could, and did, extend divine titles to Christ, challenging your absolute claim that “our God” cannot refer to Jesus. Moreover, you overlook the immediate syntactic context of 2 Peter 1:1, where the single article governs both “our God” and “Savior,” followed by the appositive "Jesus Christ." This structure contrasts sharply with 2 Peter 1:2, where Peter uses a dual-article construction (τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Ἰησοῦ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν) to distinguish God and Jesus. The deliberate variation within two verses suggests intentionality: Peter employs the single article in 1:1 to unite the titles and the dual articles in 1:2 to separate the referents, a pattern your interpretation fails to account for.
Treating Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 as ad-hoc “exceptions” empties the notion of a grammatical rule. A rule stands until a counter-example is found that satisfies its formal conditions and unambiguously exhibits a contrary meaning. No such counter-example has been located in extant Greek. The two disputed verses are not counter-examples; their status is what is being tested, and that test must be conducted by the same grammatical criteria that govern the rest of the corpus, not by retreat into intuition once the data become theologically uncomfortable.
Your skepticism underestimates the dynamic nature of NT theology and the capacity of its authors to adapt language to their Christological purposes. Your position assumes a static referential norm—that “our God” must always mean the Father—yet the NT often applies OT divine descriptors to Jesus, reflecting a developing understanding of His identity. In Romans 10:13, Paul quotes Joel 2:32 (“everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved”) and applies it to Jesus, while Philippians 2:9-11 echoes Isaiah 45:23 to depict Jesus receiving universal worship, a prerogative of Yahweh. Similarly, in 2 Peter 1:1, the phrase “our God and Savior” parallels the OT’s “a righteous God and Savior” (Isaiah 45:21 LXX), suggesting Peter intentionally ascribes this divine title to Jesus. Your refusal to entertain this possibility dismisses the theological creativity evident across the NT, where syntactic cues, not just customary usage, guide interpretation. The absence of “our God” explicitly applied to Jesus elsewhere in Peter’s or Paul’s writings does not negate the grammatical force of the TSKS construction here; it merely highlights the significance of these instances as deliberate affirmations of Christ’s deity.
Your argument essentially begins with the premise that, since in other parts of Scripture it is the Father who is referred to as God, therefore, in this context, it cannot be the Son who is being called God. This line of reasoning, however, falls into the trap of circular logic. By assuming that only the Father can be called God based on other scriptural references, you are presupposing the very conclusion you aim to prove—that the Son cannot be referred to as God here either. This creates a circular argument because the premise relies on the conclusion being true without providing independent evidence. For example, it’s akin to arguing that a particular title, such as “king,” can only refer to one person because in other historical records, only that person is called king, thereby excluding the possibility of another person holding the same title in a different context. In doing so, you are using the conclusion as a premise, which undermines the argument’s validity.
On purely linguistic grounds, then, Sharp’s canon still governs these clauses. The authorial placement of the single article, reinforced by the immediate switch to dual-article syntax when distinct persons are intended, requires that “our God and Savior” in both passages is one referent, further identified by the appositive Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ. Distributional regularities elsewhere illuminate the force of the titles, but they do not overthrow the grammar that here joins them.
Ultimately, your rejection of Sharp’s rule rests on a preference for a preconceived theological framework—where Jesus cannot be “our God”—over the objective analysis of Greek syntax. The claim that “it is clear to me there are two referents” betrays a subjective judgment unsupported by linguistic evidence. Sharp’s rule does not depend on personal belief or theological comfort but on the consistent behavior of the TSKS construction in Koine Greek. You examples of “our God” referring to the Father elsewhere (Galatians 1:4, Ephesians 5:20, Philippians 4:20) are irrelevant to the grammatical question, as none involve a TSKS construction with a single article linking “God” and another noun. In contrast, the syntax of 2 Peter 1:1 and Titus 2:13—τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ and τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ—meets Sharp’s criteria precisely, indicating a single referent, Jesus Christ. To override this with “common sense” based on distributional frequency is to allow theological bias to supplant exegesis, a methodological error that the NWT perpetuates by inserting an unwarranted second article. Your position thus fails to engage the grammatical data robustly, offering no compelling counterargument to the conclusion that these verses affirm Jesus as “our God and Savior.”