@scholar
You acknowledge that qualitativeness signifies the nature or essence of the subject in Koine Greek. But where they misunderstand is the suggestion that this quality does not reflect "full divinity." The qualitative reading of theos in John 1:1c does not imply "godlike" in a diminished or lesser sense but points to the full nature of divinity. Many respected scholars, like Wallace and Harner, argue that the qualitative sense implies that the Word shares in the very essence of deity—fully divine, not just some “divine quality” in a vague or partial sense.
The issue is that the NWT’s rendering “a god” introduces ambiguity. The indefinite “a god” implies subordinationism, suggesting that Jesus is a separate deity, which contradicts the strict monotheism seen throughout both the Old and New Testaments (e.g., Deuteronomy 6:4). The qualitative reading, however, supports the understanding that Jesus shares in the same divine nature, maintaining monotheism while affirming the Word’s full divinity.
The NWT’s rendering of John 1:1 as "the Word was a god" introduces theological confusion by suggesting that there is more than one "god" or that the Word is a lesser, subordinate deity. This interpretation is inconsistent with the monotheism that pervades the entire Bible, including the Old and New Testaments. The Bible explicitly teaches that there is only one God (Deuteronomy 6:4; Isaiah 45:5; 1 Timothy 2:5). Introducing "a god" into this context breaks with this clear monotheistic teaching, implying either polytheism or henotheism, which is foreign to biblical revelation.
Furthermore, the qualitative force of theos in John 1:1c, as highlighted by scholars like Wallace, emphasizes that the Word shares fully in the divine nature without implying a lesser or secondary god. Wallace, along with other respected Greek scholars, argues that the qualitative nature of theos in John 1:1 indicates that the Word is fully and truly God. To translate this phrase as "a god" misrepresents the original Greek and distorts the theological message that John intended to communicate.
The absence of the definite article in front of theos in John 1:1c (theos ēn ho logos) is not an indication of indefiniteness but rather a grammatical structure emphasizing the qualitative aspect of theos. In Greek, an anarthrous noun (a noun without an article) can often denote the nature or essence of something, as is the case here. The Word, being theos, is fully divine—sharing the same nature as God the Father.
Wallace and other scholars rightly point out that John 1:1b ("the Word was with [the] God") shows a distinction in person between the Father and the Word, while John 1:1c emphasizes the Word’s participation in the divine nature. The absence of the article before theos does not suggest that the Word is "a god" among many or a lesser divine being, but rather that the Word possesses all the attributes of deity. The translation "the Word was God" is the most accurate rendering in this case, affirming the full divinity of the Word without implying polytheism or subordinationism.
NWT’s rendering ‘a god’ is consistent with other translations and affirms Biblical monotheism. The traditional rendering 'the Word was God' contradicts 'the Word was with God.'
The NWT's rendering is not consistent with the majority of credible scholarly translations. No major scholarly Bible translation (RSV, ESV, NIV, NASB, etc.) renders John 1:1c as “a god.” This is because such a translation implies polytheism or henotheism, both of which contradict the monotheistic foundations of Christianity. The traditional rendering, “the Word was God,” does not contradict the phrase “the Word was with [the] God.” Rather, it affirms that the Word, though distinct in person, shares in the same divine nature as the Father. This reflects the Trinitarian understanding that there is one divine essence shared by the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, without confusing their distinct persons.
The argument that "a god" would imply subordination is well-illustrated by scholars such as Bruce Metzger and Daniel Wallace. They both argue that John 1:1 highlights the unique relationship between the Father and the Son in terms of equality in essence, not in a hierarchy of deities.
Trinitarianism is rooted in Neo-Platonism and is not found in the OT or NT.
Your assertion that the Trinity is a "pagan" invention or a product of Neo-Platonism misunderstands the historical development of Christian theology. This argument is historically inaccurate. While it’s true that early Church Fathers used some philosophical language (like homoousios) to describe theological truths, this does not mean that the Trinity is rooted in pagan philosophy. The development of the Trinity doctrine was a response to various heresies (e.g., Arianism) and is based on careful exegesis of biblical texts that demonstrate Christ’s deity (John 1:1, Colossians 2:9, Philippians 2:6-11). Scholars widely recognize that the biblical texts laid the groundwork for Trinitarian theology, which became more clearly articulated over time, especially at the Council of Nicea.
Moreover, scholars, including Larry Hurtado, have shown that early Christians worshipped Jesus as divine from the very earliest stages of the faith. This worship, centered on Christ’s deity, directly contradicts the idea that Jesus was merely a created, subordinate being.
The doctrine of the Trinity was not "invented" in the later centuries but developed as the early Church reflected on the biblical data and sought to articulate the mystery of God’s nature as revealed in Scripture. The Trinitarian formula—Father, Son, and Holy Spirit—is already present in texts like Matthew 28:19, 2 Corinthians 13:14, and John 1:1.
While the early Church Fathers used philosophical language to explain theological truths (such as homoousios at the Council of Nicaea), this does not mean that the doctrine of the Trinity was derived from Greek philosophy. Rather, they used the tools available to them to defend the faith against heresies, particularly Arianism, which denied the full divinity of the Son. The Nicene Creed was a response to these heresies, affirming the scriptural teaching that the Son is "of the same essence" (homoousios) as the Father, fully God and eternally begotten, not made.
The accusation that the Trinity is a pagan concept, popularized by Alexander Hislop’s The Two Babylons, has been thoroughly debunked by scholars across various theological and historical disciplines. Hislop’s methodology was flawed, relying on superficial comparisons and unsupported historical claims. The Trinity is rooted in Scripture and reflects the Christian understanding of God’s nature as revealed in both the Old and New Testaments.
Contrary to the claim that the Trinity is "not found" in the Bible, the doctrine is rooted in biblical texts that reveal the deity of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. For example:
- John 1:1 affirms the full divinity of the Word (the Son).
- Philippians 2:6-11 shows that Jesus, though in the form of God, did not grasp equality with God but humbled himself, which implies that he was already divine.
- Colossians 2:9 says that "in Christ, all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form," emphasizing that Jesus is fully God.
Moreover, Matthew 28:19 provides the Trinitarian formula for baptism ("in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit"), showing the equal standing of these three persons in the Godhead.
The claim that Jesus is "subordinate" to the Father, based on passages like John 5:30 or 1 Corinthians 11:3, misunderstands the distinction between functional subordination and ontological equality. While Jesus, in his role as the incarnate Son, submitted to the Father’s will during his earthly ministry, this does not imply that he is ontologically inferior to the Father. The doctrine of the Trinity teaches that the Son and the Holy Spirit are co-equal and co-eternal with the Father, sharing the same divine nature, even though they may have different roles in the economy of salvation.
The NWT preserves both the indefiniteness and qualitativeness of ‘theos.’
The NWT fails to convey the intended meaning of John 1:1c. The indefinite article, "a god," implies polytheism or henotheism—both of which are foreign to Christian monotheism. The traditional qualitative interpretation does not create ambiguity but stresses that the Word possesses the very nature of God. Even Jason BeDuhn, while sympathetic to the NWT in some respects, acknowledges that the Word was divine (not “a god”) better captures the original Greek intent and is open to Trinitarian interpretation.
Daniel Wallace and other scholars have shown that the qualitative force of theos in John 1:1c emphasizes the full divine nature of the Word, not that the Word is a lesser god.
In conclusion, the NWT’s translation of John 1:1c as “a god” introduces theological
confusion and contradicts biblical monotheism by implying that Jesus is a
lesser or subordinate deity. The qualitative reading of John 1:1c, affirmed by
the majority of respected scholars, demonstrates that the Word shares fully in
the divine nature of the Father, not as “a god” but as God in essence.
Some resources for you:
- The Trinity exposed
- Arian Objections To The Trinity Refuted
- Yes, You Should Believe In The Trinity
- In Defense of the Trinity Doctrine
- A Response to the Pamphlet 'Should You Believe in the Trinity' Barry Hofstetter
- https://www.bible.ca/trinity/trinity-jw-deceptions.htm
- "Should You Believe in the Trinity?"
@Rattigan350
You argue that texts like 1 John 5:7, Matthew 28:19, Revelation 1:11, and 1 Timothy 3:16 have been altered to support the Trinity doctrine. It is easy to see that these are not deliberate falsifications in the KJV, but come from the Textus Receptus before the age of modern textual criticism, unlike the NWT, which deliberately mistransaltes to support the theological agende of the WTS. Let's examine this claim more closely.
· 1 John 5:7 (Comma Johanneum): It’s true that the longer version of this verse, which explicitly mentions the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit as being one, is a later addition. Most modern scholars agree on this. However, the Trinity does not rest on this verse alone. In fact, the Trinity is grounded in the broader teaching of Scripture, not on one debated verse. The absence of the explicit Comma Johanneum does not remove the Trinity, as the concept is built on many scriptural passages.
· Matthew 28:19: You claim that Matthew 28:19, where Jesus commands his disciples to baptize “in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit,” is spurious. Yet, the textual evidence overwhelmingly supports this verse. It appears in all early manuscripts of Matthew, including Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus, and has strong patristic support. Early Church Fathers like Eusebius of Caesarea quoted it extensively, and there is no evidence of its alteration. The triadic formula here is part of Jesus' Great Commission and clearly demonstrates the early Christian understanding of the Trinity, where the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are mentioned equally.
· Revelation 1:11: This verse in the KJV does include the phrase “I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last,” which is absent in some earlier manuscripts. However, this does not change the overall message of the book of Revelation that presents Christ as divine (Rev 22:13, 22:16) and part of the Godhead, referred to as the "Alpha and Omega."
· 1 Timothy 3:16: The phrase “God was manifest in the flesh” appears in later manuscripts, and earlier versions have “He was manifest in the flesh.” But this phrase still refers to Jesus, and whether we read "God" or "He," the implication is that Jesus, being divine, took on human flesh. The deity of Christ is still strongly supported by many other scriptures, such as John 1:1 and Colossians 2:9.
You claim that the connection between John 8:58 (“Before Abraham was, I am”) and Exodus 3:14 (“I AM WHO I AM”) is made up, and that the apostles didn’t connect the two.
However, Jesus' use of "I AM" in John 8:58 is a clear echo of God's self-identification in Exodus 3:14. The Jewish leaders clearly understood Jesus' claim to deity here, as evidenced by their immediate reaction to stone Him for blasphemy (John 8:59). Jesus' "I AM" statement is an explicit claim to eternal existence and divine identity.
In Exodus 3:14, God reveals His name to Moses as “I AM” (YHWH), expressing His eternal and self-existent nature. When Jesus uses the same phrase, “I AM,” in John 8:58, He is directly identifying Himself with YHWH. The reaction of the Jewish leaders confirms that they understood His claim to be God, which is why they sought to stone Him. This connection is not "made up," but deeply rooted in both Jewish and Christian understanding.
You reference Psalm 110:1, where it says, "Jehovah said to my Lord, ‘Sit at my right hand.’” This verse is often used by non-Trinitarians to claim that Jesus is a lesser Lord, distinct from YHWH (Jehovah).
However, Psalm 110:1 is one of the most quoted Old Testament verses in the New Testament because it points to the Messiah's exaltation. When it says "Yahweh said to my Lord," it refers to a divine dialogue between God the Father (YHWH) and the Messiah (Jesus), acknowledging Jesus’ divine lordship and authority.
Jesus Himself uses this passage to assert His divine status in Matthew 22:44. The New Testament consistently presents Jesus as exalted to the Father’s right hand, sharing in divine authority (Hebrews 1:3; Philippians 2:9-11). Psalm 110 does not deny Jesus' deity; rather, it affirms His unique role as the Messianic King who shares in God’s rule.
You argue that the Pharisees wanted to kill Jesus not because of His claims to deity, but because He overturned tables in the temple and was a threat to their lifestyle.
While it is true that Jesus’ actions in the temple angered the religious leaders, the Gospel accounts clearly state that they sought to kill Him for blasphemy because He claimed to be equal with God. In John 10:30-33, Jesus says, “I and the Father are one.” The Jews understood this as a claim to deity, as they responded, “You, a mere man, claim to be God.” This passage clearly shows that the Jewish leaders saw Jesus' claims as blasphemous because they believed He was equating Himself with God.
You dismiss Thomas’ declaration, “My Lord and my God” in John 20:28, arguing that because Thomas was a doubter, his statement holds less weight. This is a misunderstanding of the significance of this event.
Thomas' confession is the climactic declaration of faith in the resurrected Jesus. Far from being insignificant, it is one of the strongest affirmations of Jesus' divine identity in the New Testament. Thomas, who had previously doubted, was convinced by Jesus’ resurrection and declared Him both “Lord” (kyrios) and “God” (theos). Jesus does not correct Thomas but accepts the worship, further affirming His divine status. This is not a statement to be dismissed but one that directly affirms the belief that Jesus is God.
You argue that Peter’s confession in Matthew 16:16, where he declares Jesus as “the Christ, the Son of the living God,” holds more weight than Thomas’ statement. However, Peter’s confession does not contradict the deity of Jesus.
In calling Jesus "the Christ, the Son of the living God," Peter acknowledges Jesus as the promised Messiah and Son of God. "Son of God" in Jewish thought often meant sharing in the divine nature of God. In fact, Jesus’ response to Peter—“Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jonah, for flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven” (Matthew 16:17)—shows that this recognition of Jesus’ divine identity came directly from God.
You dismiss John 1:1, stating that there are translations other than the NWT (New World Translation) that do not translate the passage as "the Word was God." However, the overwhelming majority of translations and biblical scholars agree that John 1:1 affirms the deity of Jesus.
The Greek phrase in John 1:1, "kai theos ēn ho logos", is most accurately translated as "the Word was God." The construction of the Greek text, particularly the use of the definite article with "ho theos" and the anarthrous (without an article) "theos" in the predicate position, shows that the Word (Jesus) shares the same divine essence as God.
In conclusion, your arguments against the Trinity, based on select interpretations and supposed spurious texts, fail to undermine the solid biblical foundation for the doctrine. The Trinity is not based on a few isolated verses or later textual additions, but on the full testimony of Scripture, which presents God as one in essence, yet three in persons—Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.
The early Church did not "invent" this doctrine. It was a natural conclusion drawn from the teachings of Jesus and the apostles, as well as from the Hebrew Scriptures. Far from being a later "invention" or "borrowed" from pagan sources, the Trinity reflects the mystery of God's nature as revealed in both the Old and New Testaments.